Name: 
 

CNA Practice Remediation



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A nursing pattern that brings services from departments to the bedside is
a.
Primary nursing
b.
Team nursing
c.
Patient-focused care
d.
Case management
 

 2. 

RNs do all of the following except:
a.
Follow doctor’s orders
b.
Delegate to LPNs/LVNs
c.
Develop care plans for the person and family
d.
Prescribe treatments for the person
 

 3. 

Who has the most authority in a nursing service department?
a.
Nurse manager
b.
Charge nurse
c.
Staff nurse
d.
Director of nursing
 

 4. 

Assisted living residences provide the following except
a.
Housing
b.
Help with personal care
c.
Complex medical care
d.
Social activities
 

 5. 

These individuals give basic nursing care under the supervision of a licensed nurse:
a.
Nurse practitioners
b.
Social workers
c.
Nursing assistants
d.
Medical technologists
 

 6. 

Nursing assistants may report to the following except
a.
An RN
b.
An LPN/LVN
c.
A nurse team leader
d.
Another nursing assistant
 

 7. 

Who helps patients, residents, and families with social, emotional, and environmental issues
affecting illness and recovery?
a.
The speech-language pathologist
b.
The podiatrist
c.
The activities director
d.
The social worker
 

 8. 

The goal of rehabilitation is
a.
To return persons to the highest possible level of physical and mental functioning
b.
To reduce the risk of illness
c.
To help the person make simple life-style changes
d.
To do as much as possible for the person
 

 9. 

What must an agency have to operate and provide care?
a.
A certificate
b.
Accreditation
c.
Policies and procedures
d.
A license
 

 10. 

Which requires nursing assistant training and competency evaluation?
a.
Medicare and Medicaid
b.
Health maintenance organizations
c.
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987
d.
The Older Americans Act
 

 11. 

An ombudsman does the following except
a.
Provide a person’s care
b.
Protect a person’s health and safety
c.
Protect a person’s rights
d.
Investigate a person’s complaints
 

 12. 

A nurse asks you to inspect a person’s closet and drawers. To protect yourself, you should:
a.
Refuse to do it
b.
Ask the nurse to do it instead
c.
Ask a co-worker to be present with you during the inspection
d.
Ask the family to inspect the closet and drawers themselves
 

 13. 

The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 is a
a.
State law
b.
Nurse practice act
c.
Federal law
d.
Criminal law
 

 14. 

OBRA requires re-training and/or a new competency evaluation for persons who
a.
Have not worked as a nursing assistant for 24 months
b.
Were found guilty of abuse or neglect
c.
Were convicted of a crime
d.
Did not have good performance evaluations
 

 15. 

Which tells you what your employer expects?
a.
Your job description
b.
The state nurse practice act
c.
OBRA
d.
Code of ethics
 

 16. 

A nurse asks you to do a urinary catheterization. This involves sterile technique and
inserting a tube into the person’s bladder. The nurse gives you very clear instructions.
What should you do?
a.
Perform the task. The nurse’s directions were clear.
b.
Perform the task if the nurse is available to answer questions.
c.
Refuse the task. It is beyond the legal limits of your role.
d.
Perform the task if another nursing assistant can help you.
 

 17. 

You can refuse to perform a delegated task if
a.
You are too busy
b.
You do not like the task
c.
It is the end of your shift and you are ready to go home
d.
The task is not in your job description
 

 18. 

You discuss last night’s date with your patient. This is
a.
Invasion of privacy
b.
Boundary violation
c.
Slander
d.
Emotional abuse
 

 19. 

Which is not a source for standards of care?
a.
Textbooks
b.
Manufacturer’s instructions
c.
The nurse’s directions
d.
Job descriptions
 

 20. 

A nursing assistant pinches and pushes a patient. This is:
a.
Negligence
b.
Malpractice
c.
Neglect
d.
Abuse
 

 21. 

Work ethics means
a.
Trusting others with personal information
b.
Being polite and considerate
c.
Behavior in the workplace
d.
Right and wrong conduct
 

 22. 

You say things that offend another person. This is
a.
Gossip
b.
Defamation
c.
Being rude
d.
Harassment
 

 23. 

Large rings and bracelets are dangerous because:
a.
Patients and residents can pull them off.
b.
They can scratch patients and residents.
c.
They provide a place for microbes to grow and multiply.
d.
They can damage care equipment.
 

 24. 

A person has not had a job in four years. The person should
a.
Write N/A in the blanks for those four years
b.
Give information regarding the employment gap on the application stating the
reason
c.
Do nothing; the interviewer will ask if they desire to know
d.
Write employed
 

 25. 

You arrive at Fair Haven Nursing Center for an interview. What should you do first?
a.
Stop in the restroom.
b.
Get something to drink.
c.
Give the receptionist your name.
d.
Take a walk through the center.
 

 26. 

You are in the waiting area before your interview. What should you do?
a.
Sit quietly.
b.
Eat your lunch.
c.
Talk to the receptionist.
d.
Look at things on the receptionist desk.
 

 27. 

Which answers are best during an interview?
a.
“Yes” and “no” answers
b.
Brief explanations
c.
Long explanations
d.
Written responses
 

 28. 

Children emergencies are
a.
Your responsibility
b.
The agency’s responsibility
c.
Your co-workers’ responsibility
d.
Part of your benefits package
 

 29. 

You need to arrive for work
a.
Before your shift starts
b.
When your shift starts
c.
Within 5 minutes of your shift’s starting time
d.
Within 10 minutes of your shift’s starting time
 

 30. 

You see two health team members talking quietly to each other. You tell your co-workers
what you overheard. This is
a.
Eavesdropping
b.
Gossip
c.
An invasion of privacy
d.
Defamation
 

 31. 

What is the best way to look professional at work?
a.
Ask your friends to help you shop for uniform.
b.
Wear your favorite clothes to work.
c.
Check yourself in the mirror before leaving for work.
d.
Follow the agency’s dress code.
 

 32. 

You need to call your children. When should you make the call?
a.
After you finish assigned tasks
b.
When patients or residents are napping
c.
During meal or break times
d.
When the nurse is talking to the doctor
 

 33. 

To keep personal matters out of the workplace, you should
a.
Use phones on the nursing unit to make personal calls
b.
Sell your handmade crafts at work
c.
Have your son meet you over your lunch break
d.
Send text messages from the hallway as opposed to the person’s room
 

 34. 

A patient’s care is assigned to Sally Jones. The patient needs to use the bathroom. Sally
Jones is on a meal break. Who will help the patient?
a.
Sally Jones. She will have to return to the unit.
b.
No one. The patient will have to wait until Sally Jones is done eating.
c.
Any staff member on the unit will help.
d.
The patient’s family will help.
 

 35. 

Stress in your personal life can affect your work and the care you give.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 36. 

You could lose your job for the following reasons except
a.
Refusing to accept a delegated task that is not in your job description
b.
Neglecting a patient or resident
c.
Violating any agency policy
d.
Giving false information on your job application
 

 37. 

You could lose your job for the following reasons except
a.
Using offensive speech and language
b.
Destroying a patient’s or a resident’s property
c.
Having a weapon in the workplace
d.
Working when scheduled
 

 38. 

Which does not promote communication
a.
Being brief and concise
b.
Giving information in the order the events occurred
c.
Presenting facts
d.
Talking about two subjects at once
 

 39. 

You are working in a nursing center. Where would you record information about the
person’s hygiene, elimination, and sleep?
a.
The admission sheet
b.
The progress notes
c.
Activities-of-daily-living flow sheet
d.
Kardex
 

 40. 

You are reporting to the nurse. Which is incorrect?
a.
Be prompt, thorough, and accurate.
b.
Give the person’s name, room and bed number, and the time you gave care of
made observations.
c.
Report what co-workers did.
d.
Use your notes.
 

 41. 

When should you report changes in the person’s condition?
a.
At once
b.
At the end of your shift
c.
Before you take your lunch break
d.
During the end-of-shift report
 

 42. 

Anyone who reads your charting should know the following except
a.
What you observed
b.
What you did
c.
What your co-workers did
d.
The person’s response
 

 43. 

The clock shows 12:00 noon. In 24-hour clock time, this is
a.
12:00 noon
b.
12:00
c.
1200
d.
Noon
 

 44. 

Dys-means
a.
Without, not, lack of
b.
Slow
c.
Difficult
d.
Inners, inside
 

 45. 

Gastro-means
a.
Stomach
b.
Large intestine
c.
Small intestine
d.
Intestines
 

 46. 

Pnea-means
a.
breathing, respiration
b.
Lung, air, gas
c.
Nose
d.
Lung
 

 47. 

Vaso-means
a.
Artery
b.
Vein
c.
Blood vessel
d.
Dilate
 

 48. 

The suffix-phasia means
a.
Swallowing
b.
Speaking
c.
Paralysis
d.
Fear
 

 49. 

The suffix-plegia means
a.
Paralysis
b.
Swallowing
c.
Speaking
d.
Sagging
 

 50. 

The abbreviation ADL means
a.
Abdomen
b.
Before meals
c.
Activities of daily living
d.
As desired
 

 51. 

These statements are about computer use in health care agencies. Which is correct?
a.
You should use the computer to send information that requires immediate
reporting.
b.
You should use the computer to send jokes and other entertainment material.
c.
Authorized staff can retrieve deleted computer files.
d.
You should use the computer to post your opinions and messages on the Internet.
 

 52. 

These statements are about computer use in health care agencies. Which is incorrect?
a.
You should share your password with co-workers.
b.
You should use correct spelling, punctuation, and grammar.
c.
You should prevent others from seeing what is on the screen.
d.
You should double-check your entries
 

 53. 

Before transferring a call, you should
a.
Explain that you are going to transfer the call
b.
Lay the phone down and find out where to transfer the call
c.
Take a message
d.
Find out the reason for the call
 

 54. 

A phone message should contain the following information except
a.
The caller’s name and phone number
b.
The caller’s social security number
c.
The date and time
d.
The message
 

 55. 

You have a conflict with a co-worker. In resolving the conflict, you should
a.
Discuss the problem in front of a witness
b.
Focus on facts and specific behavior
c.
Ask your supervisor to talk to the person
d.
Give the problem time to go away
 

 56. 

Collecting information about a person is
a.
Assessment
b.
Gossip
c.
Implementation
d.
Evaluation
 

 57. 

The nursing process is focused on
a.
The person’s needs
b.
The doctor’s orders
c.
Agency policies
d.
The medical record
 

 58. 

Which is a symptom?
a.
Noisy respirations
b.
Pulse rate of 78
c.
Cough
d.
Tingling
 

 59. 

The planning step of the nursing process involves the following except
a.
Making nursing diagnoses
b.
Setting priorities
c.
Setting goals
d.
Identifying nursing measures
 

 60. 

Care planning helps to ensure the nursing team members
a.
Follow the doctor’s orders
b.
Do assessments
c.
Complete the required paper work
d.
Are consistent, giving the same care
 

 61. 

Which is not a nursing diagnosis?
a.
Anxiety
b.
Constipation
c.
Impaired bed mobility
d.
Heart attack
 

 62. 

Goals are set during the planning step of the nursing process. Which is incorrect?
a.
A goal is that which is desired for or by the health team as a result of nursing care.
b.
Goal are aimed at the person’s highest level of well-being and function.
c.
Goals promote health and prevent health problems.
d.
Goals promote rehabilitation
 

 63. 

Which step in the nursing process involves measuring if the goals set in the planning step
were met?
a.
Assessment
b.
Planning
c.
Implementation
d.
Evaluation
 

 64. 

You can help a new resident feel safe and secure by
a.
Listening to the person’s concerns
b.
Keeping the person in his or her room
c.
Asking direct questions
d.
Asking visitors to leave the room
 

 65. 

A person’s cultural beliefs and practices are
a.
Included in the person’s care plan
b.
Ordered by the doctor
c.
Not allowed in nursing centers
d.
Determined by the health care team
 

 66. 

A nursing center resident wants to attend religious services in the center’s chapel. What
should you do?
a.
Assist the person to the chapel.
b.
Report the request to the nurse.
c.
Check the person’s care plan
d.
Ask why the person wants to attend
 

 67. 

A person’s religion is different from yours. What should you do?
a.
Judge the person by your standards.
b.
Ask to care for other patients or residents.
c.
Learn about the person’s religion.
d.
Tell the person what you believe
 

 68. 

A lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function is
a.
An illness
b.
A physical need
c.
A medical problem
d.
A disability
 

 69. 

You ask a patient a question. You should
a.
Give the person time to process what you asked
b.
Expect an answer right away
c.
Ask the question in another way
d.
Ask the question only once
 

 70. 

A patient says: “I’m tired of waiting for my lunch. I want it now!” To paraphrase, you say
a.
“Why do you want your lunch now?”
b.
“You want your lunch now.”
c.
“What do you want for lunch?”
d.
“Could you tell me that again?”
 

 71. 

A resident is very upset about her lunch. Which communication technique can help the
person gain control?
a.
Paraphrasing
b.
Silence
c.
Clarifying
d.
Focusing
 

 72. 

Which is not a pat answer?
a.
“Everything will be just fine.”
b.
“Don’t worry.”
c.
“Can you tell me what’s wrong?”
d.
“Your doctor knows best.”
 

 73. 

Where is the nucleus located?
a.
Outside the cell
b.
In the center of the cell
c.
Inside the genes
d.
Inside the chromosomes
 

 74. 

The process of cell division is called
a.
Protoplasm
b.
Chromosomes
c.
Nucleosis
d.
Mitosis
 

 75. 

Groups of cells with similar functions are
a.
Tissues
b.
Organs
c.
Chromosomes
d.
Genes
 

 76. 

These statements are about the integumentary system. Which is incorrect?
a.
It is the skin.
b.
It is the body’s natural covering
c.
It is the largest body system.
d.
It has 3 layers.
 

 77. 

Which carries messages to the brain?
a.
The auditory nerve
b.
The semicircular canals
c.
The cochlea
d.
The eustachian tube
 

 78. 

White blood cells
a.
Are needed for clotting
b.
Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide
c.
Protect the body against infection
d.
Produce heat
 

 79. 

Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
a.
Arteries
b.
Capillaries
c.
Veins
d.
Venules
 

 80. 

Another name for the trachea is the
a.
Nose
b.
Mouth
c.
Windpipe
d.
Alveoli
 

 81. 

After passing through the trachea, air enters the
a.
Right bronchus and left bronchus
b.
Bronchioles
c.
Alveoli
d.
Pharynx and larynx
 

 82. 

Which is not a part of the digestive system?
a.
The mouth
b.
The larynx
c.
The esophagus
d.
The stomach
 

 83. 

Saliva is secreted by salivary glands in the
a.
Mouth
b.
Taste buds
c.
Teeth
d.
Tongue
 

 84. 

What is the function of saliva?
a.
It allows sweet, sour, bitter, and salty tastes to be sensed.
b.
It aids in chewing and swallowing.
c.
It cuts, chops, and grinds food for digestion and swallowing.
d.
It moistens food particles for easier swallowing.
 

 85. 

During swallowing, the tongue pushes food into the
a.
Stomach
b.
Esophagus
c.
Pharynx
d.
Pancreas
 

 86. 

Chyme moves through the small and large intestine by
a.
Peristalsis
b.
Gravity
c.
Digestion
d.
The blood
 

 87. 

The penis contains the
a.
Fallopian tubes
b.
Prostate gland
c.
Urethra
d.
Vagina
 

 88. 

Growth hormone is secreted by the
a.
Thyroid gland
b.
Adrenal glands
c.
Parathyroid glands
d.
Pituitary gland
 

 89. 

Which hormone regulates metabolism?
a.
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
b.
Oxytocin
c.
Thyroid hormone
d.
Antidiuretic hormone
 

 90. 

Which increase(s) heart rate, blood pressure, and energy?
a.
Parathormone
b.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
c.
Insulin
d.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
 

 91. 

The immune system functions to
a.
Regulate body activities
b.
Protect the body against disease and infection
c.
Regulate water balance
d.
Eliminate waste
 

 92. 

An abnormal or unwanted substance is
a.
An antibody
b.
An antigen
c.
Immunity
d.
Hormones
 

 93. 

Development is
a.
An involuntary movement
b.
A skill that must be completed
c.
Changes in mental, emotional, and social function
d.
The physical changes that can be measured and that occur in a steady, orderly manner
 

 94. 

Growth is
a.
The development of social and physical skills
b.
A skill that must be completed
c.
Changes in mental, emotional, and social function
d.
The physical changes that are measured and that occur in a steady, orderly manner
 

 95. 

At 1 month old, infants can
a.
Lift their heads up briefly
b.
Reach for objects
c.
Roll from front to back
d.
Babble, coo, and make sounds
 

 96. 

Development tasks of the preschool child include the following except
a.
Performing self-care
b.
Learning gender appropriate behaviors and attitudes
c.
Learning right from wrong and good from bad
d.
Learning to play with others
 

 97. 

Four-year-olds prefer the primary caregiver of the same sex.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 98. 

Which is not a developmental task for school-age children?
a.
Developing the social and physical skills needed for playing games
b.
Learning basic reading, writing, and math skills
c.
Developing a conscience and morals
d.
Developing and keeping friendships with peers
 

 99. 

Which statement about late childhood (pre-adolescence) is correct?
a.
Boys are taller and heavier than girls are.
b.
Children need factual sex education.
c.
Family is the center of activities.
d.
Children accept adult standards and rules without question.
 

 100. 

Which is not a developmental task of late adulthood?
a.
Adjusting to aging parents
b.
Adjusting to retirement and reduced income
c.
Coping with a partner’s death
d.
Preparing for one’s own death
 



 
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