Name: 
 

CNA Practice Exam 3



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Excessive body hair is
a.
Alopecia
b.
Dandruff
c.
Pediculosis
d.
Hirsutism
 

 2. 

When combing curly hair, you start at
a.
The neckline
b.
The hair ends
c.
The scalp
d.
The forehead
 

 3. 

A male resident is 86 years old. How often is his hair washed?
a.
At least once a week
b.
Daily
c.
Three times a week
d.
As often as he chooses
 

 4. 

Which are risks when using a blade razor?
a.
Nicks and cuts
b.
Irritated skin and rashes
c.
Sores
d.
Pediculosis corporis
 

 5. 

When shaving a person, you must follow
a.
Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
b.
Surgical asepsis
c.
OBRA regulations
d.
Accrediting agency standards
 

 6. 

A resident has a beard. His beard is trimmed
a.
Daily
b.
Weekly
c.
When the nurse thinks it is too long
d.
Only with his consent
 

 7. 

What do you use to clean under fingernails?
a.
Scissors
b.
Nail clippers
c.
An emery board
d.
An orange stick
 

 8. 

You are assisting a person to dress. Which is incorrect?
a.
Provide for privacy.
b.
Choose what the person should wear.
c.
Encourage the person to do as much as possible.
d.
Support the arm or leg when removing or putting on a garment.
 

 9. 

When changing the gown of a person with an IV, you keep the IV bag
a.
Hanging on the IV pole
b.
Below the person
c.
Above the person
d.
On the bed
 

 10. 

A person has an IV. When putting on the clean gown, you first put the clean gown
a.
On the arm with the IV
b.
On the arm without the IV
c.
Over the person’s head
d.
So the ties are in the front
 

 11. 

A resident has an IV in his right arm. He wears a standard gown. He has an IV pump. Which is correct?
a.
Put his gown on the right arm first and then on the left arm.
b.
Put his gown on the left arm first and then on the right arm.
c.
His right arm is not put through the sleeve of the gown.
d.
The gown is put on so the ties are in the front.
 

 12. 

Dysuria means
a.
Sugar in the urine
b.
Blood in the urine
c.
A scant amount of urine
d.
Painful or difficult urination
 

 13. 

The loss of urine at predictable intervals when the bladder is full is
a.
Overflow incontinence
b.
Stress incontinence
c.
Reflex incontinence
d.
Urinary incontinence
 

 14. 

Which do men use for urinating?
a.
Bedpans
b.
Fracture pans
c.
Urinals
d.
Commodes
 

 15. 

These statements are about incontinence. Which is incorrect?
a.
It is a cause of falls.
b.
Infection can occur.
c.
Skin breakdown can occur.
d.
It is a matter of personal choice.
 

 16. 

A resident has a catheter. Catheter care is given
a.
According to the care plan
b.
Daily
c.
Twice a day
d.
Every shift
 

 17. 

You are giving catheter care. Which action is incorrect?
a.
Pulling on the catheter
b.
Using soap, water, and a clean washcloth
c.
Using a clean area of the washcloth for each stroke
d.
Cleaning down the catheter about 4 inches from the insertion site
 

 18. 

Constipation is
a.
Passage of a hard, dry stool
b.
Frequent passage of liquid stools
c.
Prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum
d.
Inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus
 

 19. 

Flatus is
a.
The excessive formation of gas in the stomach and intestines
b.
Gas or air passed through the anus
c.
A black, tarry stool
d.
Excreted feces
 

 20. 

These statements are about normal elimination. Which is incorrect?
a.
A bowel movement is needed every day.
b.
Stools are normally brown.
c.
Stools are normally soft, formed, moist, and shaped like the rectum.
d.
Stools normally have an odor.
 

 21. 

What is the usual position for defecation?
a.
Sitting or squatting
b.
Sims’
c.
Semi-Fowler’s
d.
Left side-lying
 

 22. 

A resident has finished defecating. You need to do the following except
a.
Assist with perineal care as necessary
b.
Dispose of stools promptly
c.
Assist the person with hand washing
d.
Give the person a suppository
 

 23. 

A patient complains of constipation. If the person is constipated, you would expect her stools to be
a.
Large or marble-sized
b.
Liquid
c.
Soft and shaped like the rectum
d.
Black and tarry
 

 24. 

Which can occur if constipation is not relieved?
a.
Fecal impaction
b.
Enema
c.
Diarrhea
d.
Suppository
 

 25. 

A patient complains of flatulence. Which position often produces flatus?
a.
Fowler’s
b.
Semi-Fowler’s
c.
Right side-lying
d.
Left side-lying
 

 26. 

Giving an enema is delegated to you. Because of the end-of-shift report, the nurse will not be available to supervise you. What should you do?
a.
Ask a co-worker to help you.
b.
Give the enema if it is in your job description.
c.
Give the enema because it was part of your education and training.
d.
Refuse to give the enema because the nurse is not available to supervise you.
 

 27. 

A cleansing enema takes effect
a.
Right away
b.
In 5 to 10 minutes
c.
In 10 to 20 minutes
d.
In 30 minutes
 

 28. 

These statements are about colostomies. Which is incorrect?
a.
The person wears a pouch to collect feces and flatus.
b.
Stool consistency depends on the colostomy site.
c.
The more colon remaining, the more liquid the stool.
d.
Good skin care is necessary because feces irritate the skin.
 

 29. 

A person has an ileostomy. Which statement is incorrect?
a.
The entire colon was removed.
b.
Feces are liquid in consistency.
c.
Feces drain constantly from the ileostomy.
d.
Water is absorbed before feces are expelled into the pouch.
 

 30. 

To empty an ostomy pouch
a.
The belt is removed
b.
The pouch is removed
c.
The drain at the top is opened
d.
The drain at the bottom is opened
 

 31. 

Anorexia is the
a.
Loss of appetite
b.
Breathing of fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs
c.
Backward flow of food from the stomach to the mouth
d.
Swelling of body tissues with water
 

 32. 

Daily Value is
a.
How a serving fits into the daily diet
b.
The amount of intake and output in 24 hours
c.
A substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body
d.
The amount of energy produced when the body burns food
 

 33. 

Remember the following when selecting foods from the meat and beans group:
a.
Choose lean or low-fat meat and poultry.
b.
Processed meats are low in sodium.
c.
Liver and other organ meats are low in cholesterol.
d.
Eggs are low in cholesterol and fat.
 

 34. 

Which nutrient is needed for tissue growth and repair?
a.
Protein
b.
Carbohydrate
c.
Fat
d.
Vitamins
 

 35. 

Which vitamin is needed for resistance to infection?
a.
Vitamin K
b.
Vitamin C
c.
Vitamin D
d.
Folic acid
 

 36. 

OBRA requires the following for foods served in long-term care centers except
a.
That food be served at the correct temperature
b.
That food is appetizing
c.
That residents be served 3 meals and offered a bedtime snack
d.
That food be prepared without seasoning
 

 37. 

A person is on a fiber- and residue-restricted diet. The person can have the following except
a.
Raw fruits and vegetables
b.
Cottage and cream cheese
c.
Potatoes (not fried)
d.
Refined bread and crackers
 

 38. 

A person is on a bland diet. Which is incorrect?
a.
Foods are low in roughage.
b.
Foods are served at moderate temperatures.
c.
Foods contain strong spices for taste.
d.
Fried foods are not allowed.
 

 39. 

A person is on a high-calorie diet. Which is correct?
a.
This is a high-protein diet.
b.
There are dietary increases in all foods.
c.
The person eats only snacks.
d.
Calorie intake is increased to 2500 a day.
 

 40. 

A person on a sodium-controlled diet can
a.
Have fruits and vegetables
b.
Add salt at the table
c.
Have bacon, ham, and sausage
d.
Have tomato juice and cheese
 

 41. 

Diabetes meal planning involves having the person
a.
Eat only carbohydrates
b.
Eat only protein
c.
Avoid fats
d.
Eat the same amount of carbohydrates, proteins, and fat each day
 

 42. 

A resident is on aspiration precautions. You position the person in semi-Fowler’s position after eating. How long should the person remain in this position?
a.
15 minutes
b.
At least 30 minutes
c.
45 minutes
d.
At least 1 hour
 

 43. 

The amount of fluid taken in (intake) and the amount of fluid lost (output) must be equal.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 44. 

A person’s 24-hour intake was 1500 mL. You know that this amount
a.
Meets normal requirements
b.
Is below normal requirements
c.
Is above normal requirements
d.
Was ordered by the doctor
 

 45. 

To maintain normal fluid balance, an adult needs to ingest
a.
1000 to 1500 mL of fluid a day
b.
1500 to 2000 mL of fluid a day
c.
2000 to 2500 mL of fluid a day
d.
2500 to 3000 mL of fluid a day
 

 46. 

Older persons are at risk for dehydration because
a.
They have kidney disease
b.
The amount of body water decreases with age
c.
They produce more urine than younger persons
d.
They depend on others for drinking water
 

 47. 

A male resident is on I&O. When urinating, he needs to use
a.
The toilet
b.
A graduate
c.
A specimen pan
d.
The urinal
 

 48. 

A patient’s coffee cup holds 250 mL. The person did not drink all the coffee. You measure that 75 mL of coffee remain. How much did the person drink?
a.
100 mL
b.
200 mL
c.
175 mL
d.
125 mL
 

 49. 

Which will not prevent the spread of infection when providing drinking water?
a.
Make sure the water pitcher is labeled with the person’s name and room and bed number.
b.
Do not touch the rim or inside of the water glass or pitcher.
c.
Do not let the ice scoop touch the rim or inside of the water glass or pitcher.
d.
Store the ice scoop in the ice dispenser.
 

 50. 

Intravenous therapy is
a.
Giving nutrients through the gastro-intestinal system
b.
A tube feeding
c.
Giving fluids through a needle or catheter inserted into a vein
d.
The many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of food and fluids by the body
 

 51. 

A jejunostomy tube is
a.
An opening in the stomach
b.
A feeding tube inserted into a surgically created opening in the jejunum of the small intestine
c.
A tube inserted into the stomach through a stab wound
d.
A tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach
 

 52. 

Persons receiving tube feedings are at risk for aspiration. You need to report the following to the nurse at once except
a.
Complaints of nausea
b.
Coughing
c.
Fever
d.
Pulse rate of 72
 

 53. 

An apical-radial pulse means that
a.
The apical pulse is taken first.
b.
The radial pulse is taken after the apical pulse.
c.
The apical and radial pulses are taken at the same time.
d.
You can take the apical pulse or the radial pulse.
 

 54. 

A heart rate over 100 beats per minute is
a.
Bradycardia
b.
Tachycardia
c.
Hypotension
d.
Hypertension
 

 55. 

A glass thermometer for rectal temperatures has a
a.
Stubby tip
b.
Long tip
c.
Pear-shaped tip
d.
Slender tip
 

 56. 

A rectal thermometer is color-coded in
a.
Blue
b.
Red
c.
Green
d.
Yellow
 

 57. 

A person has heart disease. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the
a.
Oral site
b.
Rectal site
c.
Axillary site
d.
Tympanic membrane site
 

 58. 

Before inserting a rectal thermometer, you need to
a.
Clean it with hot water
b.
Lubricate the end of the covered probe
c.
Place it in a probe cover
d.
Clean it with a disinfectant
 

 59. 

The apical pulse is found
a.
On the thumb side of the wrist
b.
Just below the left nipple
c.
Just below the right nipple
d.
At the inner aspect of the elbow
 

 60. 

An apical pulse is usually counted for
a.
15 seconds
b.
30 seconds
c.
45 seconds
d.
60 seconds
 

 61. 

These statements are about apical-radial pulses. Which is correct?
a.
The rates should be the same.
b.
The apical rate should be greater than the radial rate.
c.
The radial rate should be greater than the apical rate.
d.
The radial rate can be higher than the apical rate.
 

 62. 

To obtain the pulse deficit, you need to
a.
Add the apical and radial pulse rates
b.
Subtract the apical pulse rate from the radial pulse rate
c.
Subtract the radial pulse rate from the apical pulse rate
d.
Multiply the pulse rates by 2
 

 63. 

Respirations usually are counted
a.
After taking the temperature
b.
After taking the pulse
c.
Before measuring blood pressure
d.
After measuring blood pressure
 

 64. 

You measured a resident’s blood pressure. His diastolic pressure was 78 mm Hg. His systolic pressure was 144 mm Hg. How do you record these measurements?
a.
78 mm Hg/144 mm Hg
b.
78/144 mm Hg
c.
144 mm Hg/78 mm Hg
d.
144/78 mm Hg
 

 65. 

Which systolic pressure should you report at once?
a.
168
b.
110
c.
116
d.
118
 

 66. 

A resident just finished his daily exercise program. You need to measure his blood pressure. How long does he need to rest before the measurement?
a.
5 minutes
b.
5 to 10 minutes
c.
10 to 20 minutes
d.
20 to 30 minutes
 

 67. 

The blood pressure cuff is applied
a.
Over clothing
b.
To the bare arm
c.
Over the radial artery
d.
Under the brachial artery
 

 68. 

Abduction is
a.
Moving a body part away from the midline of the body
b.
Moving a body part toward the midline of the body
c.
Straightening a body part
d.
Bending a body part
 

 69. 

A contracture is
a.
A decrease in size or wasting away of tissue
b.
The lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle
c.
The loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity
d.
A drop in blood pressure when the person stands
 

 70. 

External rotation is
a.
Turning the joint outward
b.
Turning the joint inward
c.
Turning the joint downward
d.
Turning the joint upward
 

 71. 

Bending the foot down at the ankle is
a.
Pronation
b.
Plantar flexion
c.
Supination
d.
Dorsiflexion
 

 72. 

The act of walking is
a.
Trochanter
b.
Ambulation
c.
Orthosis
d.
Range of motion
 

 73. 

The doctor ordered bed-boards for a resident. Bed-boards prevent
a.
Plantar flexion
b.
The hips and legs from external rotation
c.
Contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist
d.
The mattress from sagging
 

 74. 

Active range-of-motion exercises are done
a.
By the person
b.
By a health team member
c.
By the person with your help
d.
With a trapeze
 

 75. 

You can perform range-of-motion exercises to the neck only if
a.
There is a doctor’s order
b.
The patient or resident asks you to
c.
You are supervised by a physical therapist
d.
Allowed by your agency and the nurse instructs you to
 

 76. 

Which exercise is not done to the shoulder?
a.
Flexion
b.
Extension
c.
Supination
d.
Hyperextension
 

 77. 

Which exercises are done to the forearm?
a.
Pronation and supination
b.
Flexion and extension
c.
Abduction and adduction
d.
Internal and external rotation
 

 78. 

Which exercises are done to the ankle?
a.
Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
b.
Abduction and adduction
c.
Internal and external rotation
d.
Radial and ulnar flexion
 

 79. 

How far should you walk a person?
a.
As far as the person can tolerate
b.
As far as directed by the nurse and the care plan
c.
Down the hall and back to the room
d.
As far as the person chooses
 

 80. 

These statements are about canes. Which is incorrect?
a.
The cane is held on the weak side.
b.
The grip is level with the hip.
c.
The cane is moved forward first.
d.
The cane tip is about 6 to 10 inches to the side of the foot.
 

 81. 

Acute pain
a.
Is felt suddenly
b.
Is felt in a body part that is no longer there
c.
Is felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas
d.
Is constant or occurs on and off
 

 82. 

The day-night cycle is
a.
REM sleep
b.
NREM sleep
c.
The sleep-wake cycle
d.
Circadian rhythm
 

 83. 

To be free from mental or physical stress is
a.
Comfort
b.
Rest
c.
Relaxation
d.
Sleep
 

 84. 

A patient complains of pain. Which will not help you collect information about the person’s pain?
a.
Ask if the pain is mild, moderate, or severe.
b.
Ask the person what factors cause the pain.
c.
Check the person’s vital signs.
d.
Give the person drugs to relieve the pain.
 

 85. 

A resident is 84 years old. How many hours of sleep does the person need?
a.
5 to 7
b.
7 to 8
c.
10 to 11
d.
11 to 12
 

 86. 

Which of the following measures will not promote sleep?
a.
Providing tea and chocolate cake before bedtime
b.
Assisting with ambulation in the courtyard after the evening meal
c.
Assisting with a shower before bedtime
d.
Allowing television programs as requested
 

 87. 

The nurse assesses that a resident is suffering from sleep deprivation. Which is correct?
a.
The person cannot sleep or stay asleep.
b.
The amount and quality of sleep are decreased.
c.
The person leaves his bed and walks about during sleep.
d.
The person is having pain.
 

 88. 

You are going to prepare a room for a new patient. How do you know what equipment is needed?
a.
You check the care plan.
b.
The nurse tells you.
c.
You follow hospital policy. Every patient needs the same equipment.
d.
The person’s family tells you.
 

 89. 

A new hospital patient is ambulatory. Which is incorrect?
a.
Open the bed.
b.
Lower the bed to its lowest position.
c.
Raise the bed rails.
d.
Attach the signal light to the bed linens.
 

 90. 

You introduce yourself to a new resident by name and title.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 91. 

You are admitting a new resident. You will do the following except
a.
Discuss the person’s diagnoses and medical history
b.
Complete a clothing list
c.
Orient the person to the room
d.
Orient the person to the nursing unit and the center
 

 92. 

You are admitting a new resident. The person’s niece is in the room. You ask the niece to leave the room. Which is correct?
a.
The niece must leave the room.
b.
You have no right to ask the niece to leave.
c.
The resident can ask the niece to stay.
d.
The niece needs to stay. She needs to give identifying information.
 

 93. 

Which is not a guideline for measuring weight and height?
a.
Footwear is worn.
b.
The person voids before being weighed.
c.
Weigh the person at the same time of day.
d.
Use the same scale for daily, weekly, and monthly weights.
 

 94. 

These statements are about transfers. Which is incorrect?
a.
Only a doctor can request a transfer.
b.
A transfer may be needed if the person’s condition changes.
c.
The person is transported by wheelchair, stretcher, or the bed.
d.
Transfers may be necessary if roommates do not get along.
 

 95. 

A resident is being transferred to another unit. Which will not help reassure the person?
a.
Telling the person that everything will be OK
b.
Using touch to provide comfort
c.
Introducing the person to the new staff
d.
Introducing the person to the new roommate and other residents
 

 96. 

An exam is done only with the person’s consent.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 97. 

A nasal speculum is used to examine the
a.
Inside of the nose
b.
Vagina
c.
Rectum
d.
Mouth, teeth, and throat
 

 98. 

Which examination position is used to examine the cervix of a female resident?
a.
The lithotomy position
b.
The Sims’ position
c.
The position she chooses
d.
The position the examiner chooses
 

 99. 

The knee-chest position is used to examine the
a.
Rectum
b.
Abdomen
c.
Chest
d.
Breasts
 

 100. 

When assisting with a physical exam, you are responsible for the following except
a.
Protecting the right to privacy
b.
Obtaining informed consent
c.
Reassuring the person throughout the exam
d.
Protecting the person from falling
 



 
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