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NCLEX 54-59

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A nurse is attempting to inspect the lacrimal apparatus of a client’s eye. Because of its anatomical location, the nurse should do which of the following?
a.
Retract the upper eyelid and ask the client to look down.
b.
Retract the upper eyelid and ask the client to look up.
c.
Retract the lower eyelid and ask the client to look up.
d.
Retract the lower eyelid and ask the client to look down.
 

 2. 

A client has been newly diagnosed with glaucoma. As part of the discharge instructions, the nurse should plan to include which of the following?
a.
The need to decrease table salt in the diet
b.
The need for lifelong medication therapy
c.
The need to restrict fluids in order to reduce intraocular pressure
d.
The need to avoid straining or overworking the eyes
 

 3. 

A client is diagnosed with hyphema after experiencing a traumatic blow to the eye. The nurse explains to the client that which activity limitations need to be implemented following this type of injury?
a.
Bathroom privileges only
b.
Ambulation within the room only
c.
Bedrest with the head of the bed flat
d.
Bedrest with the head in semi-Fowler’s position
 

 4. 

A client arrives in the emergency department with an eye injury due to metal fragments that hit the eye while the client was drilling into metal. The nurse assesses the eye and notes small pieces of metal floating on the eyeball. Which action should the nurse take first?
a.
Perform complete visual acuity tests.
b.
Irrigate the eye with sterile saline.
c.
Remove the objects using a sterile eye clamp.
d.
Apply an eye patch.
 

 5. 

A client has been diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse who is teaching the client principles of self-care would encourage the client to limit or refrain from which of the following usual activities on a repeated basis?
a.
Ironing
b.
Folding clothes on a laundry table
c.
Peeling vegetables
d.
Picking objects up off the floor
 

 6. 

A nurse is explaining how sound is conducted from the middle ear to the inner ear in teaching a client who is experiencing hearing loss. The nurse plans to use a diagram that illustrates how which of the following bones connects to the cochlea at the oval window?
a.
Malleus
b.
Hammer
c.
Stapes
d.
Incus
 

 7. 

A nurse is developing a poster to use in teaching clients about the prevention of hearing loss. The nurse would diagram which of the following structures as part of the inner ear?
a.
Malleus
b.
Incus
c.
Stapes
d.
Cochlea
 

 8. 

An adult client has increased fluid in the middle ear, which is causing vertigo. The nurse assesses this client for which associated signs and symptoms of this condition?
a.
Headache and flushing
b.
Nausea and vomiting
c.
Ear pain and tinnitus
d.
Hearing loss and difficulty in swallowing
 

 9. 

A nurse has been assigned to a client with a hearing impairment. To enhance nurse-client communication, the nurse should plan to communicate with the client by speaking:
a.
Directly into the impaired ear
b.
In a normal tone while facing the client
c.
On a more frequent basis
d.
Very loudly to the client
 

 10. 

A nurse is reviewing the medication list for an assigned client. The nurse becomes concerned because which of the following medications is the only one on the client’s order sheet that does not have an ototoxic effect?
a.
Furosemide (Lasix)
b.
Vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin)
c.
Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
d.
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
 

 11. 

A client is being discharged to home with a prescription for eye drops to be given in the left eye. The nurse has shown the client how to self-administer the drops. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if the client does which of the following during a return demonstration?
a.
Lies with the head to the right, puts the drop in the inner canthus, and slowly turns to the left while blinking
b.
Lies supine, pulls down on the lower lid, and puts the drop in the lower lid
c.
Lies supine, pulls up on the upper lid, and puts the drop in the upper lid
d.
Tilts the head back, pulls down on the lower lid, and puts the drop in the lower lid
 

 12. 

A nurse is teaching a mother how to administer ear drops to an infant. The nurse plans to demonstrate by pulling the ear:
a.
Down and back and directing the solution onto the eardrum
b.
Down and back and directing the solution toward the wall of the canal
c.
Up and back and directing the solution onto the eardrum
d.
Up and back and directing the solution toward the wall of the canal
 

 13. 

A nurse is concerned that a client may experience systemic effects from carteolol hydrochloride (Ocupress) ophthalmic solution. The nurse observes the client self-administer the medication to be sure that the client:
a.
Instills the eye drops after a meal
b.
Swallows at least five times after instillation
c.
Blinks quickly to form tears after instillation
d.
Applies digital pressure to the lacrimal sac for 1 to 2 minutes after instillation
 

 14. 

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is reviewing the medication list of the client with a history of glaucoma. The LPN would consult with the registered nurse if which of the following medications is ordered for this client?
a.
Pilocarpine (Ocusert Pilo-20)
b.
Pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine)
c.
Atropine sulfate (Isopto Atropine)
d.
Carteolol hydrochloride (Ocupress)
 

 15. 

A client who has just been diagnosed with glaucoma has been given a prescription for a miotic medication. When teaching the client about medication effects, the nurse plans to tell the client that the medication will:
a.
Reshape the lens to eliminate blurred vision.
b.
Interrupt the drainage of aqueous humor from the eye.
c.
Lower intraocular pressure and enhance blood flow to the retina.
d.
Dilate the pupil to reduce intraocular pressure.
 

 16. 

A client who has sustained an eye injury has been prescribed corticosteroid eye drops. The nurse would most carefully monitor for side effects of this medication if the client has which of the following health problems listed on the medical record?
a.
Hypertension
b.
Diabetes mellitus
c.
Cirrhosis
d.
Chronic constipation
 

 17. 

A client with chronic glaucoma is being started on medication therapy with acetazolamide (Diamox). The nurse teaches the client that which symptoms that can occur early in use subsides or disappears in time?
a.
Diuresis
b.
Fatigue
c.
Headache
d.
Loss of libido
 

 18. 

A nurse is administering gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) ophthalmic ointment to a client. After instilling the ointment, the nurse instructs the client to close the eye and:
a.
Keep it shut tightly for 2 minutes.
b.
Roll the eyeball in all directions.
c.
Press on the nasolacrimal duct for 10 minutes.
d.
Press tissue onto the closed eyelids.
 

 19. 

A client has been instructed to alternate the use of hydrogen peroxide and glycerin eardrops to loosen an impacted accumulation of earwax. The nurse gives the client which of the following directions to accomplish this daily procedure safely and independently?
a.
Use the solutions chilled for 3 to 5 days.
b.
Use the solutions heated to 120 degrees for 5 to 7 days.
c.
Use the solutions at body temperature for 7 to 14 days.
d.
Use the solutions at room temperature for 1 to 3 days.
 

 20. 

A client has just undergone lumbar puncture (LP). The nurse assists the client into which most optimal position if tolerated by the client?
a.
Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 15 degrees
b.
Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip
c.
Prone, in slight Trendelenburg’s position
d.
Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen
 

 21. 

A client with Bell’s palsy exhibits facial asymmetry and cannot close the eye completely on one side. The client is also drooling and has loss of tearing in one eye. The nurse documents that the client displays symptoms of involvement of which of the following cranial nerves (CNs)?
a.
CN VI
b.
CN VII
c.
CN III
d.
CN V
 

 22. 

A nurse is caring for the client with a head injury secondary to a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes the client’s status regularly, monitoring closely for which changes in vital signs?
a.
Increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure (BP)
b.
Increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing BP
c.
Decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP
d.
Decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing BP
 

 23. 

A client who sustained a closed head injury has a new onset of copious urinary output. Urine output for the previous 8-hour shift was 3300 mL, and 2800 mL for the shift before that. The findings have been reported to the physician, and the nurse anticipates an order for which of the following medications?
a.
Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
b.
Mannitol (Osmitrol)
c.
Desmopressin (DDAVP)
d.
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
 

 24. 

A client who suffered a cervical spine injury had Crutchfield tongs applied in the emergency department. The nurse would avoid which of the following actions in the care of the client?
a.
Checking the amount of traction in use against the order each shift
b.
Removing the weights when repositioning the client
c.
Placing the client on a Stryker frame
d.
Assessing the status and integrity of the weights and pulleys
 

 25. 

A nurse is providing instructions to the client who has just been fitted for a halo vest. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions?
a.
“I will use a straw to make drinking easier.”
b.
“I will avoid driving at night because the vest limits the ability to turn the head.”
c.
“I will use caution because the vest alters the center of gravity and balance.”
d.
“I will wash my skin daily under the lamb's wool liner of the vest.”
 

 26. 

A client with spinal cord injury has experienced more than one episode of autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse would plan to avoid which of the following that could trigger an episode of this complication?
a.
Rigidly adhering to a bowel retraining program
b.
Allowing the client’s bladder to become distended
c.
Keeping the linen under the client free of wrinkles
d.
Preventing pressure on the client’s lower limbs
 

 27. 

A nurse is assisting in admitting a client who experienced seizure activity in the emergency department. The nurse avoids doing which of the following when managing this client’s environment?
a.
Keeping the bed position raised to the nurse’s waist level
b.
Having intravenous (IV) equipment ready for insertion
c.
Ensuring that an airway, oxygen, and suction equipment are at the bedside
d.
Placing padding on the side rails of the bed
 

 28. 

A client who is recovering from a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. The licensed practical nurse instructs the nursing assistant to avoid which of the following at mealtime?
a.
Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth
b.
Allowing ample time for chewing and swallowing
c.
Giving the client thin liquids
d.
Giving foods and fluids with the consistency of oatmeal
 

 29. 

A client with a history of spinal cord injury is beginning medication therapy with baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse who is providing medication information should caution the client about which side effect of this medication?
a.
High blood pressure
b.
Muscle pain
c.
Sensitivity to bright light
d.
Drowsiness
 

 30. 

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is being evaluated for possible myasthenia gravis. The health care provider gives a test dose of edrophonium (Tensilon). The nurse recalls that the client would have which of the following reactions if the client does actually have this disease?
a.
An increase in muscle strength within 1 to 3 minutes
b.
A decrease in muscle strength within 1 to 3 minutes
c.
Joint pain for the next 15 minutes
d.
Feelings of faintness or dizziness for 5 to 10 minutes
 

 31. 

A client with myasthenia gravis becomes increasingly weaker. The physician injects a dose of edrophonium (Tensilon) to determine whether the client is experiencing a myasthenia crisis or a cholinergic crisis. The nurse expects that the client will have which of the following reactions if the client is in cholinergic crisis?
a.
An improvement of the weakness
b.
A temporary worsening of the condition
c.
No change in the condition
d.
Complaints of muscle spasms
 

 32. 

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client with Parkinson’s disease who is receiving carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet). The nurse plans to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects, which could appear with elevated serum levels of this medication?
a.
Pruritus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Tachycardia
d.
Impaired voluntary movements
 

 33. 

A nurse is providing instructions to a client beginning medication therapy with divalproex sodium (Depakote ER) for the treatment of absence seizures. The nurse instructs the client that which of the following is the most frequent side effect of this medication?
a.
Nausea and vomiting
b.
Blue vision
c.
Irritability
d.
Tinnitus
 

 34. 

A nurse is reading the laboratory results for a client being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol) for prophylaxis of complex-partial seizures. The nurse interprets that which of the following values is consistent with an adverse reaction to this medication?
a.
White blood cell count 3200/mm3
b.
Blood urea nitrogen 19 mg/dL
c.
Sodium 136 mEq/L
d.
Platelet count 350,000/mm3
 

 35. 

A postoperative client has been receiving morphine sulfate every 3 to 4 hours for pain. The nurse should be sure to implement which measure to reduce the risk of adverse effects from this medication?
a.
Monitor the client’s temperature.
b.
Encourage fluids.
c.
Maintain the client in a supine position.
d.
Encourage coughing and deep breathing.
 

 36. 

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client receiving codeine sulfate for pain. The nurse should make note of which of the following to detect adverse effects of this medication?
a.
Onset of hypertension
b.
Fluid volume excess
c.
Frequency of bowel movements
d.
Strength of peripheral pulses
 

 37. 

A client who recently began medication therapy with levodopa (Larodopa) for Parkinson’s disease complains of nausea. The nurse reminds the client to do which of the following to best manage this problem?
a.
Take the medication with three glasses of water.
b.
Eat a snack before taking the medication.
c.
Take an antiemetic at the same time as the levodopa.
d.
Lie down and rest after taking the dose.
 

 38. 

Which of the following interventions would be contraindicated in the postprocedure care of the client following a bone biopsy of the left arm?
a.
Place the left arm in a dependent position for 24 hours.
b.
Monitor vital signs every 4 hours.
c.
Monitor site for swelling, bleeding, hematoma.
d.
Administer oral analgesics as needed.
 

 39. 

A nurse is providing postprocedure instructions to a client returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse would encourage the client to:
a.
Not eat or drink anything until the following morning
b.
Report to the physician the development of fever or redness and heat at the site
c.
Keep the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day
d.
Resume regular full activity the following day
 

 40. 

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has had a left above-the-knee amputation. The nurse carefully inspects the residual limb for which of the following complications due to the history of diabetes?
a.
Separation of wound edges
b.
Pain
c.
Edema of the stump
d.
Hemorrhage
 

 41. 

A client has sustained multiple fractures in the left leg and is in skeletal traction. The nurse has obtained an overhead trapeze for the client’s use to aid in bed mobility. The nurse would pay particular attention to monitoring for which of the following high-risk areas for pressure and breakdown?
a.
Right heel
b.
Left heel
c.
Scapulae
d.
Back of the head
 

 42. 

A nurse is teaching a client about foods in the diet that could minimize the risk of osteoporosis. The nurse would encourage the client to increase intake of which of these foods?
a.
Fish
b.
Turkey
c.
Sweet potatoes
d.
Cheese
 

 43. 

A client has just had an application of a nonplaster (fiberglass) leg cast, and the nurse is giving the client instructions on cast care at home. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions?
a.
“I should not use anything to scratch underneath the cast.”
b.
“I should use a hair dryer set to the hot setting to dry my cast if it gets wet.”
c.
“I need to avoid walking on wet or slippery floors.”
d.
“I can use a damp cloth to wipe off surface dirt on the cast.”
 

 44. 

A client has just had skeletal traction applied following insertion of pins. The nurse should place highest priority on doing which of the following while caring for the client?
a.
Provide for diversion such as television or newspaper.
b.
Explain to the client the upcoming pin care procedure.
c.
Ensure that the weights on the traction setup are hanging free.
d.
Perform pin site care.
 

 45. 

A nurse is reviewing the list of discharge instructions for a client who underwent left total knee replacement (TKR) with insertion of a metal prosthesis. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions?
a.
“I need to report bleeding gums or tarry stools.”
b.
“I need to tell my other doctors about the metal implant.”
c.
“I need to report fever, redness, or increased pain.”
d.
“I don’t need to be worried if the shape of my knee changes.”
 

 46. 

A nurse is teaching the client with a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) measures to protect the residual limb, or stump. The nurse would be sure to include which of the following points in discussions with the client?
a.
Apply lotion daily to prevent cracking of the skin of the residual limb.
b.
Use a mirror to inspect all areas of the residual limb.
c.
Put a clean nylon sock on the residual limb daily.
d.
Toughen the skin of the residual limb by rubbing it with alcohol.
 

 47. 

A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of bursitis. The nurse encourages the client to avoid which of the following least helpful measures until the current episode is resolved?
a.
Applying moist heat
b.
Resting the joint
c.
Active intermittent range of motion
d.
Elevation of the joint
 

 48. 

A client has a new medication order for allopurinol (Zyloprim). A practical nursing student coassigned with the licensed practical nurse (LPN) states, “I know this is for gout, but how does it work?” In formulating a response, the LPN includes that allopurinol:
a.
Lowers the risk of sulfa crystal formation in the urine
b.
Decreases uric acid production
c.
Reduces the production of fibrinogen
d.
Prevents influx of calcium ions during cell depolarization
 

 49. 

A client diagnosed with gout has been started on medication therapy with allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse teaches the client which of the following points about this medication?
a.
Take the medication on an empty stomach.
b.
Development of a rash frequently occurs with this medication.
c.
The medication takes effect immediately.
d.
It is important to drink 3 L of fluid per day.
 

 50. 

A client with osteoarthritis is receiving diclofenac sodium (Voltaren). The licensed practical nurse (LPN) reviewing the client’s medication order sheet would plan to verify the order with the registered nurse (RN) if which of the following other medications were listed?
a.
Primidone (Mysoline)
b.
Calcium carbonate (Tums)
c.
Warfarin (Coumadin)
d.
Vitamin C supplement
 

 51. 

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is administering medications to a client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis. The client has difficulty swallowing, and the film-coated form of diflunisal (Dolobid) is ordered. Which action by the LPN is most appropriate?
a.
Give the client a large glass of water to aid in swallowing.
b.
Consult with the registered nurse (RN) about contacting the physician regarding a medication change.
c.
Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce.
d.
Open the tablet and mix the contents with food.
 

 52. 

Baclofen (Lioresal) is prescribed for the client with multiple sclerosis. The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the intended effect if which of the following is noted in the client?
a.
Increased muscle tone
b.
Increased range of motion
c.
Decreased muscle spasms
d.
Decreased local pain and tenderness
 

 53. 

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is reviewing laboratory results for a client taking dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). The LPN should suggest to the registered nurse to notify the physician if which of the following was noted on the laboratory report sheet?
a.
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 600 units/L
b.
Platelet count 290,000 cells/mm3
c.
Blood urea nitrogen 9 mg/dL
d.
Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
 

 54. 

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is told that baclofen (Lioresal) is prescribed for an assigned client. The LPN questions the registered nurse about the physician’s order if which of the following conditions is noted on the client problem list?
a.
Seizure disorder
b.
Hyperthyroidism
c.
Coronary artery disease
d.
Diabetes mellitus
 

 55. 

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is reviewing the medical record of a newly assigned client and notes that the client is receiving cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride (Flexeril) for the treatment of muscle spasms. The LPN questions the order if which of the following disorders is noted in the admission history?
a.
Angle-closure glaucoma
b.
Hypothyroidism
c.
Chronic bronchitis
d.
Recurrent pneumonia
 

 56. 

A client has just been given a prescription for methocarbamol (Robaxin), and the nurse provides instructions to the client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions?
a.
“This medication can cause nasal congestion.”
b.
“This mediation is intended to relieve muscle spasms.”
c.
“The medication may turn the urine brown or green.”
d.
“Blurred vision is a common but unimportant effect.”
 



 
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