Name: 
 

Care of Patients with Neurologic Disorders



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A nurse explains that the spinal cord extends from the brainstem to the level of which vertebra?
a.
Last thoracic
b.
Second lumbar
c.
First sacral
d.
Coccygeal
 

 2. 

On admission to the emergency department, a patient with a C5 compression fracture can move only his head and has flaccid paralysis of all extremities. The distraught family asks if the paralysis is permanent. What is the best response by the nurse?
a.
“Yes. In all likelihood, the paralysis is probably permanent.”
b.
“No. Significant recovery of function should occur in a few days.”
c.
“It is too early to tell. When the spinal shock subsides, we will know more.”
d.
“You should talk to your physician about things of that nature.”
 

 3. 

Which assessment would indicate the resolution of spinal shock?
a.
Extension and rigidity in affected limbs
b.
Spastic involuntary movements in affected limbs
c.
Tingling and burning in affected limbs
d.
Voluntary purposeful movements of affected limbs
 

 4. 

Which assessment leads the emergency department nurse to suspect that a patient’s spinal cord injury (SCI) is below C4?
a.
Voluntary eye movement
b.
Ability to blink the eyelids
c.
Unlabored respiration
d.
Ability to make a facial grimace
 

 5. 

During a neurologic assessment, a nurse asks a patient to dorsiflex the foot against the resistance of the nurse’s hand. The patient is unable to perform this action. Where does this assessment confirm that cord damage has occurred?
a.
C4 to C5
b.
L2 to L4
c.
L5
d.
S1
 

 6. 

What technique should the nurse implement to move the impaired legs of a patient with an SCI to avoid stimulation muscle spasm?
a.
Firmly grasping the calf muscle and the thigh muscle
b.
Manipulating the limb by supporting the knee and ankle joints
c.
Holding the foot upright and slowly dragging the limb into position
d.
Requesting assistance to support the calf and thigh
 

 7. 

When recording the findings of muscle strength, a nurse records a 2 for the right arm. How should his score be interpreted?
a.
Weak contraction
b.
Muscle movement when supported
c.
Active muscle movement without support
d.
Full, active range-of-motion exercises against resistance
 

 8. 

Which technique of opening the airway in the newly admitted patient with an SCI is the most appropriate?
a.
Chin lift
b.
Head tilt
c.
Jaw thrust
d.
Neck flexion
 

 9. 

Brown-Séquard syndrome results in which neurologic deficit?
a.
Bilateral loss of pain sensation below the level of injury
b.
Bilateral loss of temperature and motor function below the level of injury
c.
Motor and sensory loss in the upper extremities only
d.
Ipsilateral loss of motor function and contralateral loss of pain sensation and temperature
 

 10. 

Which level of independence is an appropriate nursing care plan goal for a patient with a C8 transection?
a.
Manage a mechanical wheelchair with a joystick.
b.
Manage a mechanical wheelchair with hand control.
c.
Manage a specially equipped wheelchair.
d.
Manage an ordinary wheelchair.
 

 11. 

A paraplegic patient excitedly reports seeing his foot move when he was being turned. How is this phenomenon best explained?
a.
Reflexive movement
b.
Return of motor function
c.
Early symptom of autonomic dysreflexia
d.
Result of hypertonicity of the muscle
 

 12. 

After spinal shock has been resolved, an indwelling catheter is removed. What way should the nurse expect this patient to empty the bladder?
a.
Manual expression (Credé method)
b.
Spontaneous reflexive action
c.
Normal voluntary control
d.
Self-catheterization
 

 13. 

A distressed family member asks about the purpose of the Gardner-Wells tongs. Which is the most helpful explanation by the nurse regarding the action of Gardner-Wells tongs?
a.
Compress the cervical vertebrae.
b.
Immobilize the head.
c.
Allow the patient to be moved out of bed.
d.
Align the cervical vertebrae.
 

 14. 

What is the major advantage of the halo device over the Gardner-Wells tongs?
a.
Separates the cervical vertebrae
b.
Allows the patient out of bed
c.
Aligns the cervical spine
d.
Relieves pain
 

 15. 

A patient is receiving methylprednisolone. What purpose should the nurse explain this drug has in treating a patient with an SCI?
a.
Reduces spinal cord cellular damage
b.
Counteracts spinal shock
c.
Increases blood supply to the injured cord
d.
Enhances sexual function
 

 16. 

A patient with an SCI begins to have seizures, and the blood pressure (BP) rises rapidly to 210/160 mm Hg. Which is the third indicator of the syndrome of autonomic dysreflexia?
a.
Profuse vomiting
b.
Hives on face and neck
c.
Excessive urine output
d.
Bradycardia
 

 17. 

What should be the immediate intervention when a nurse recognizes autonomic dysreflexia in the patient with an SCI?
a.
Flex the patient’s legs using the knee gatch of the bed.
b.
Cool the patient with alcohol solution.
c.
Raise the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees.
d.
Administer oxygen per mask.
 

 18. 

Which intervention by a nurse is effective in the prevention of autonomic dysreflexia in the patient with an SCI?
a.
Ensure patency of the urinary catheter.
b.
Give warm baths to the patient to stimulate vasodilation.
c.
Keep lighting at a minimum to reduce stimulation.
d.
Offer the patient four or five small meals daily.
 

 19. 

A nurse tells a patient with quadriplegia that he is being treated with intravenous (IV) drugs because this method is more effective than intramuscularly (IM). What explanation should the nurse provide about IM medications to explain to the patient why they are less effective than IV?
a.
Too concentrated
b.
Too irritating to poorly perfused tissue
c.
Not absorbed well below the level of the injury
d.
Too small a dose to be effective
 

 20. 

The family members of a patient with an SCI, who is in the rehabilitation phase, wants to take the patient outdoors for a visit. It is 90° F outside and very humid. What should the nurse suggest?
a.
Do not go outside at all but remain in the hospital.
b.
Take a spray bottle to spray water to cool the patient by evaporation.
c.
Take a light sweater to insulate the patient.
d.
Have the patient drink at least 32 oz of water during the outing.
 

 21. 

A nurse notes that no urinary output has occurred in a patient who underwent a laminectomy 2 hours earlier. What action should the nurse implement?
a.
Continue to monitor.
b.
Inform the charge nurse.
c.
Perform intermittent catheterizations.
d.
Turn the patient to the right side.
 

 22. 

Which statement made by a male patient with an SCI could be assessed as a positive adaptation to the nursing diagnosis of “Sexual dysfunction, related to altered body function”?
a.
“I know I will never have a sexual relationship again.”
b.
“I need some suggestions as to how to direct my sexual energy into gardening or painting . . . or just anything.”
c.
“Can you arrange an appointment with a sex counselor so I can begin to examine alternative methods of sexual activity?”
d.
“I think that after a while I will be able to have sexual relationships just like I had before my accident.”
 

 23. 

What should a nurse emphasize regarding the rehabilitation of the patient with an SCI?
a.
Rehabilitation is usually achieved within a few months after stabilization.
b.
Rehabilitation will return the patient with an SCI to the preaccident functional level.
c.
Rehabilitation focuses on adjustments necessary to reenter society and the workplace.
d.
Rehabilitation completely targets self-care.
 

 24. 

What should a nurse include in a patient’s plan of care when considering interventions for the outcome of prevention of contractures in a patient with an SCI?
a.
Apply cold wraps to the limbs twice a day.
b.
Perform full ROM exercises every 2 hours.
c.
Use significant tactile stimuli each shift.
d.
Apply splints to the limbs.
 

 25. 

The family of a patient with an SCI is concerned with the lack of bowel function 2 days after the injury. What is the best response by the nurse?
a.
“Because of his injury, he will always need to have enemas for bowel evacuation.”
b.
“Medical management is delaying bowel action because it places pressure on the injury.”
c.
“Bowel function should return in approximately 3 days after the accident.”
d.
“We’ll just have to wait and see if bowel action returns this week.”
 

 26. 

What should a nurse explain when a patient with an SCI inquires what the physician means by a cone-down?
a.
A cone is surgically placed over the spine to protect the cord.
b.
Marks will be placed on either side of the injury to mark the area.
c.
A cone-shaped wedge of bone will be placed between the vertebrae.
d.
A detailed radiographic image will be taken of the spinal injury.
 

 27. 

What should a nurse encourage a patient with an SCI to do after a computed tomography (CT) scan?
a.
Sit up at a 30-degree angle.
b.
Prevent chilling.
c.
Drink plenty of water.
d.
Avoid bearing down.
 

 28. 

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
a.
Somatic and the autonomic
b.
Cerebellum and the brainstem
c.
Medulla oblongata and the diencephalon
d.
Central and the peripheral
 

 29. 

What is the cranial nerve that supplies most of the organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities and also carries motor fibers to glands that produce digestive juices and other secretions?
a.
Somatic motor nerve
b.
Visceral sensory nerve
c.
Abducens nerve
d.
Vagus nerve
 

 30. 

The newly admitted patient to the emergency room 30 minutes ago after a fall off a ladder has gradually decreased in consciousness and has slowly reacting pupils, a widening pulse pressure, and verbal responses that are slow and unintelligible. What is the most appropriate position for the patient?
a.
Neck placed in a neutral position
b.
Head raised slightly with hips flexed
c.
Supine in gravity neutral position
d.
Turn on right side with head elevated
 

 31. 

Which question is likely to elicit the most valid response from the patient who is being interviewed about a neurologic problem?
a.
“Do you have any sensations of pins and needles in your feet?”
b.
“Does the pain radiate from your back into your legs?”
c.
“Can you describe the sensations you are having?”
d.
“Do you ever have any nausea or dizziness?”
 

 32. 

What is the cardinal sign of increased intracranial pressure in a brain injured patient?
a.
Pupil changes
b.
Ipsilateral paralysis
c.
Vomiting
d.
Decrease in the level of consciousness
 

 33. 

The nurse is aware that when assessing a patient by the FOUR score coma scale, the patient is assessed in four categories: eye response, brainstem reflexes, motor response, and respiration. How are these results reported?
a.
As a sum of the scores of the four categories
b.
As part of the Glasgow coma scale
c.
As individual scores in each category
d.
As progressive scores during a 24-hour period
 

 34. 

As the result of a stroke, a patient has difficulty discerning the position of his body without looking at it. In the nurse’s documentation, which would best describe the patient’s inability to assess spatial position of his body?
a.
Agnosia
b.
Proprioception
c.
Apraxia
d.
Sensation
 

 35. 

A patient, age 45, is to have a myelogram to confirm the presence of a herniated intervertebral disk. Which nursing action should be planned with respect to this diagnostic test?
a.
Obtain an allergy history before the test.
b.
Ambulate the patient when returned to the room after the test.
c.
Use heated blanket to keep patient warm after procedure.
d.
Keep NPO for 6 to 8 hours after the test.
 

 36. 

A patient has recently suffered a stroke with left-sided weakness and has problems with choking, especially when drinking thin liquids. What nursing interventions would be most helpful in assisting this patient to swallow safely?
a.
Use a straw
b.
Tuck chin when swallowing
c.
Take a sip of liquid with each bite
d.
Turn head to the left
 

 37. 

What are surgical navigational systems?
a.
Computerized devices that guide the surgeon
b.
A set of detailed anatomic maps pinpointing specific areas of the brain
c.
A written set of progressive processes for the resection of small brain tumors
d.
The use of radioactive materials to pinpoint small tumors of the brain
 

 38. 

A family member of a patient who has just suffered a tonic-clonic seizure is concerned about the patient’s deep sleep. What is this behavior called?
a.
Convalescent period
b.
Neural recovery period
c.
Sombulant period
d.
Postictal period
 

 39. 

How would a nurse record the behavior when a patient with Alzheimer disease attempts to eat using a napkin rather than a fork?
a.
Apraxia
b.
Agnosia
c.
Aphasia
d.
Dysphagia
 

 40. 

Which symptom is specific to migraine headaches?
a.
Tachycardia
b.
They become worse in the evening
c.
They involve the entire head
d.
They are preceded by an aura
 

 41. 

The nurse assures an anxious family member of a 92-year-old patient who is demonstrating signs of dementia that many causes of dementia are reversible and preventable. What is one example?
a.
Hypotension
b.
Alzheimer disease
c.
Diabetes
d.
Parkinson disease
 

 42. 

What is the nurse assessing when asking the patient, “Who is the president of the United States?” during a level of consciousness assessment?
a.
Orientation
b.
Memory
c.
Calculation
d.
Fund of knowledge
 

 43. 

What Glasgow Coma Scale rating would a patient receive who opens the eyes spontaneously, but has incomprehensible speech and obeys commands for movement?
a.
8
b.
10
c.
11
d.
12
 

 44. 

What is the nurse aware of when assessing a person with a craniocerebral injury?
a.
Most injuries of this type are irreversible
b.
Open injuries are always more serious than closed injuries
c.
Signs and symptoms may not occur until several days after the trauma
d.
Trauma to the frontal lobe is more significant than to any other area
 

 45. 

The nurse is caring for a home health patient who had a spinal cord injury at C5 three years ago. The nurse bases the plan of care on the knowledge that the patient will be able to:
a.
feed self with setup and adaptive equipment.
b.
transfer self to wheelchair.
c.
stand erect with full leg braces.
d.
sit with good balance.
 

 46. 

A frantic family member is distressed about the flaccid paralysis of her son following a spinal cord injury several hours ago. What does the nurse know about this condition?
a.
It is an ominous indicator of permanent paralysis.
b.
It is possibly a temporary condition and will clear.
c.
It degenerates into a spastic paralysis.
d.
It will progress up the cord to cause seizures.
 

 47. 

A patient with a spinal cord injury at T1 complains of stuffiness of the nose and a headache. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and “goose flesh.” What should be the primary nursing intervention based on these assessments?
a.
Place patient in flat position and check temperature
b.
Administer oxygen and check oxygen saturation
c.
Place on side and check for leg swelling
d.
Sit upright and check blood pressure
 

 48. 

The nurse is aware that the characteristic gait of the person with Parkinson disease is a propulsive gait, which causes the patient to:
a.
stagger and need support of a walker.
b.
shuffle with arms flexed.
c.
fall over to one wide when walking.
d.
take small steps balanced on the toes.
 

 49. 

What does the nurse know about the stroke patient who has expressive aphasia?
a.
Has difficulty comprehending spoken and written communication
b.
Cannot make any vocal sounds
c.
Has total loss and comprehension of language
d.
Can understand the spoken word, but cannot speak
 

 50. 

The nurse is aware that the drug t-PA (Activase), a tissue plasminogen activator, must be given in____hours of the onset of symptoms to have maximum benefit.
a.
3 hours
b.
4 hours
c.
6 hours
d.
8 hours
 

 51. 

An 83-year-old patient has had a stroke. He is right-handed and has a history of hypertension and “little” strokes. He presents with right hemiplegia. To afford him the best visual field, the nurse should approach him:
a.
from the right side.
b.
from the left side.
c.
from the center.
d.
from either side.
 

 52. 

The newly admitted patient to the emergency room after a motorcycle accident has serosanguineous drainage coming from the nose. What is the most appropriate nursing response to this assessment?
a.
Cleanse nose with a soft cotton-tipped swab
b.
Gently suction the nasal cavity
c.
Gently wipe nose with absorbent gauze
d.
Ask patient to blow his nose
 

 53. 

How would the nurse instruct a patient with Parkinson disease to improve activity level?
a.
To use a soft mattress to relax the spine
b.
To walk with a shuffling gait to avoid tripping
c.
To walk with hands clasped behind back to help balance
d.
To sit in hard chair with arms for posture control
 

 54. 

What is the basic problem that prompts most of the early signs of Alzheimer disease?
a.
Changes in mood
b.
Misplacing things
c.
Memory loss that disrupts daily life
d.
Problems with words in speaking
 

 55. 

A patient is in which stage of Alzheimer disease when she demonstrates “sundowning”?
a.
Early stage
b.
Second stage
c.
Third stage
d.
Final stage
 

 56. 

Why are the drugs neostigmine (Prostigmin) and pyridostigmine (Mestinon) helpful to the person with myasthenia gravis?
a.
Improves speech
b.
Improves visual disturbances
c.
Reduces pain
d.
Promotes nerve impulse transmission
 

 57. 

What should the nurse do when the child arrives on the floor with the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
a.
Arrange for humidified oxygen per mask
b.
Place the child in respiratory isolation
c.
Inquire about drug allergy
d.
Hold NPO until orders arrive
 

 58. 

What is the purpose of a “drug holiday” in the treatment of Parkinson disease?
a.
Change all drugs
b.
Allow the natural dopamine levels to rise
c.
Restart drugs at a lower dosage with favorable results
d.
Reduce the extrapyramidal symptoms
 

 59. 

What is the first sign of Bell’s palsy?
a.
Inability to wrinkle forehead and pucker lips on affected side
b.
Sudden pain in nostril on affected side
c.
Excessive salivation on the affected side
d.
Excessive mucus running from nostril on affected side
 

 60. 

Following a myelogram the nurse should include in the postprocedure care assessment for:
a.
elevation of blood pressure.
b.
urine retention.
c.
sensation in lower extremities.
d.
slurred speech.
 

 61. 

Why is the patient with suspected Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) hospitalized immediately?
a.
The infection needs to be treated with IV antibiotics to prevent paralysis
b.
The brain may swell quickly causing seizures
c.
The disease can rapidly progress into respiratory failure
d.
IV hydration is needed to prevent possible fatal hypotension
 

 62. 

To what does the neural synapse refer?
a.
Length of time it takes for afferent neurons to carry impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)
b.
Length of time it takes for efferent neurons to carry impulses to the motor neurons
c.
Space between the axons and the dendrites of a neuron
d.
Space between the axons of one neuron and the dendrites of the next
 

 63. 

An older adult patient is experiencing extreme stress related to an admission to the hospital. What should the nurse expect the patient to demonstrate?
a.
Decreased heart rate
b.
Decreased blood pressure (BP)
c.
Irregular respiration
d.
Dilation of the pupils
 

 64. 

Which neurologic finding would be considered abnormal in an 88-year-old patient?
a.
Slow papillary response to light
b.
Jerky eye movements
c.
Dizziness and problems with balance
d.
Absence of the Achilles tendon jerk
 

 65. 

What is the most reliable indicator of neurologic status?
a.
Blood pressure
b.
Pulse rate
c.
Temperature
d.
Level of consciousness
 

 66. 

A patient is stuporous but reacts by withdrawing from painful stimuli. What term is most appropriate for this patient?
a.
Comatose
b.
Lethargic
c.
Semicomatose
d.
Somnolent
 

 67. 

Which describes the Babinski reflex?
a.
Downward curl of the toes
b.
Big toe bending upward
c.
Spreading out of the toes
d.
Pain in the big toe
 

 68. 

What should the nurse assess for the when a patient is scheduled for an angiogram?
a.
Dizziness
b.
Allergy to shrimp
c.
Increased BP
d.
Irregular heartbeat
 

 69. 

What diagnostic test might be contraindicate for a patient who has a pacemaker?
a.
Computed tomography (CT)
b.
Electromyography (EMG)
c.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d.
Electroencephalography (EEG)
 

 70. 

A patient with a severe head injury begins to assume a posture of flexed upper extremities, with plantarflexed lower extremities. What do these assessments indicate?
a.
Increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) with decorticate posturing
b.
Decreasing ICP with decerebrate posturing
c.
Decreasing ICP with decorticate posturing
d.
Increasing ICP with decerebrate posturing
 

 71. 

What should be immediately reported by the nurse caring for a 90-year-old patient with a closed head injury?
a.
Blood pressure change from 147/72 to 176/70 mm Hg
b.
Respiration rate increase from 14 to 18 breaths/min
c.
Slow pupillary reaction bilaterally
d.
Temperature decrease from 100.2° F to 97.6° F
 

 72. 

A patient with generalized convulsive disorder has a nursing diagnosis of “Deficient knowledge, related to lack of information about the side effects of phenytoin (Dilantin).” Which goal and outcome criteria would be most appropriate?
a.
Absence of gastrointestinal (GI) complaint; takes medication with food
b.
Stimulation of gingiva; brushes teeth vigorously to encourage gingival growth
c.
Maintenance of normal pattern of elimination; limits fluids and eats foods that reduce diarrhea
d.
Maintenance of normal sleep pattern; reduces stimuli and takes warm baths to induce drowsiness
 

 73. 

A nurse is caring for a patient with meningitis who has a positive Brudzinski sign. Which assessment led to this conclusion?
a.
Flexed hips when the neck is flexed by the nurse
b.
Inability to extend the flexed leg fully because of hamstring pain
c.
Resisting efforts of the nurse to flex his or her neck
d.
Flexing the big toe upward and fan out the other toes
 

 74. 

Which assessment on a patient on mannitol therapy for cerebral edema indicates the medication is effective in decreasing ICP?
a.
Increased BP
b.
Increased urinary output
c.
Decreased pulse
d.
Widening pulse pressure
 

 75. 

What should a nurse instruct a patient after a lumbar puncture to prevent a headache?
a.
Lie flat.
b.
Lie on left side.
c.
Stay in semi-Fowler position.
d.
Ambulate in the room with assistance.
 

 76. 

Which three symptoms are characteristic of Cushing triad associated with increased ICP?
a.
Hypotension, tachycardia, and narrowing pulse pressure
b.
Hypertension, tachycardia, and headache
c.
Widening pulse pressure, headache, and seizure
d.
Bradycardia, hypertension, and widening pulse pressure
 

 77. 

A nurse is evaluating the goal of teaching for the nursing diagnosis of “Knowledge deficit, related to conservation of energy in a patient with multiple sclerosis” (MS). Which statement by the patient indicates a positive outcome?
a.
“Now that I am taking steroids, I will be able to work like I used to.”
b.
“I’m making a list of things that are important and things I will simply have to let go.”
c.
“I will make a plan to allow for long rest periods at least four times a day.”
d.
“I am working on balancing time among rest, work, and family time.”
 

 78. 

A patient in the emergency department states that she fell and hit her head and blacked out for a while but became alert again. The nurse suspects an epidural hematoma. For what should the nurse be diligent to assess?
a.
Headache
b.
Drowsiness
c.
Increasing respiration rate
d.
Vomiting
 

 79. 

Which intervention should be added to the nursing care plan for supporting nutritional intake in a patient with Parkinson disease?
a.
Offer large meals with a variety of finger foods.
b.
Thicken liquids to make them easier to swallow.
c.
Puree all foods and drink through a straw.
d.
Offer a diet high in carbohydrates and fat and low in protein.
 

 80. 

A patient with Parkinson disease is depressed because his drug protocol of L-dopa and Sinemet is no longer controlling his symptoms. What is the best response by the nurse?
a.
Other drugs can be combined with L-dopa to increase its effectiveness.
b.
The effect of these drugs has an uneven course; symptoms will begin to subside again soon.
c.
The two drugs can be given in higher doses to control the symptoms.
d.
Surgical interventions have been very effective in the control of parkinsonian symptoms.
 

 81. 

A patient with Parkinson disease is considering taking St. John’s wort, an herbal remedy for depression, in addition to Sinemet and L-dopa. What is the most appropriate nursing response?
a.
Depression is reduced by the use of herbal remedies such as St. John’s wort.
b.
Doses of St. John’s wort and parkinsonian drugs should be taken on alternate days.
c.
St. John’s wort must be taken in large doses to reduce depression.
d.
Herbal remedies can interfere with the effectiveness of the parkinsonian drugs.
 

 82. 

Which nursing assessment would indicate a need for suctioning a patient with Guillain-Barré who is experiencing impaired breathing patterns because of neuromuscular failure?
a.
Decreased pulse rate and respiration of 20 breaths/min
b.
Increased pulse rate and adventitious breath sounds
c.
Increased pulse rate and respiration of 16 breaths/min
d.
Decreased pulse and abdominal breathing
 

 83. 

A family member asks the nurse what would be an appropriate gift for a patient with Parkinson disease. What is the most useful suggestion?
a.
Soft-soled house shoes
b.
Jigsaw puzzle
c.
Set of card games
d.
Satin sheets
 

 84. 

What action should the nurse implement when a patient falls to the floor in a generalized seizure?
a.
Cradle the head to prevent injury.
b.
Insert an object between the teeth to prevent the patient from biting the tongue.
c.
Manually restrain the limbs.
d.
Keep the patient on his or her back to prevent aspiration.
 

 85. 

How can the nurse help reduce ICP in caring for the patient after a craniotomy?
a.
Keeping the patient flat in bed
b.
Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees
c.
Closely monitoring the IV rate
d.
Turning the patient to the right side
 

 86. 

Why is a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) uniquely prone to depression?
a.
Nutritional intake is poor.
b.
Intellectual capacity is not affected.
c.
Mobility is limited.
d.
Communication is altered.
 

 87. 

A nurse is careful about limb position in caring for an unconscious patient who sustained a head injury 10 days ago. What is the nurse trying to prevent?
a.
Flexion deformities
b.
Atrophy
c.
Paralysis
d.
Pathologic fracture
 

 88. 

What should the nurse implement before giving an enteral feeding to a patient?
a.
Palpate the abdomen to check for residual feeding.
b.
Warm the feeding.
c.
Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
d.
Ask the patient to tip his head forward.
 

 89. 

A patient has weakness on the right side and impaired reasoning after having a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). What part of the brain is affected?
a.
Left hemisphere of the cerebrum
b.
Right hemisphere of the cerebrum
c.
Left cerebellum
d.
Right cerebellum
 

 90. 

Which patient is at the greatest risk for a CVA?
a.
A 20-year-old obese Latin woman who is taking birth control pills
b.
A 40-year-old athletic white man with a family history of CVA
c.
A 60-year-old Asian woman who smokes occasionally
d.
A 65-year-old African American man with hypertension
 

 91. 

A patient experienced a period of momentary confusion, dizziness, and slurred speech but recovered in 2 hours. Which assessment in the diagnosis of this episode would be most helpful?
a.
Patient’s complaint of nausea
b.
Blood pressure (BP) of 140/90 mm Hg
c.
Patient’s complaint of headache
d.
Auscultation of a bruit over the carotid artery
 

 92. 

A nurse is updating a teaching plan for a patient who sustained a TIA. What should the nurse be sure to include?
a.
Daily aspirin dose
b.
Long rest periods daily
c.
Reduction of fluid intake to 800 mL/day
d.
High-carbohydrate diet
 

 93. 

A patient recovering from a CVA asks the purpose of the warfarin (Coumadin). What is the best response by the nurse regarding the purpose of Coumadin?
a.
Dissolves the clot.
b.
Prevents the formation of new clots.
c.
Dilates the vessels to improve blood flow.
d.
Suppresses the formation of platelets.
 

 94. 

A patient has had a complete stroke as a result of a ruptured vessel in the left hemisphere. How should this patient’s CVA be classified?
a.
Ischemic, embolic
b.
Hemorrhagic, subarachnoid
c.
Hemorrhagic, intracerebral
d.
Ischemic, thrombotic
 

 95. 

What should a nurse ensure as a priority for a patient immediately after a CVA?
a.
Preservation of motor function
b.
Airway maintenance
c.
Adequate hydration
d.
Control of elimination
 

 96. 

When should a nurse recognize that the acute phase of a CVA has ended?
a.
Forty-eight hours has passed from its onset.
b.
The patient begins to respond verbally.
c.
BP drops.
d.
Vital signs and neurologic signs stabilize.
 

 97. 

A patient in the acute phase of a CVA who has been speaking distinctly begins to speak indistinctly and only with great effort but still coherent. What should this nurse determine when assessing this patient?
a.
Stroke in evolution with dysarthria
b.
Lacunar stroke with fluent aphasia
c.
Complete stroke with global aphasia
d.
Stroke in evolution with dyspraxia
 

 98. 

Several days after a CVA, a patient’s family asks a nurse if tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is a drug therapy option now. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that this drug must be used within how many hours after the onset of symptoms?
a.
3
b.
5
c.
10
d.
24
 

 99. 

A nurse explains that a lumbar puncture is most helpful as a diagnostic tool for a new patient who has had a CVA. What would this diagnostic test help determine regarding the stroke?
a.
It is lacunar.
b.
It is hemorrhagic or embolic.
c.
It is complete or in evolution.
d.
It will result in paralysis.
 

 100. 

A patient who has sustained a hemorrhagic stroke is placed on a protocol of 60 mg of calcium channel blocker (nimodipine) every 4 hours. The patient’s pulse is 82 beats/min before the administration of the prescribed dose. Which action should the nurse implement?
a.
Give the full dose as prescribed without further assessment.
b.
Omit the dose, recording the pulse rate as the rationale.
c.
Delay the dose until the pulse is below 60 beats/min.
d.
Give half of the prescribed dose (30 mg).
 

 101. 

During the acute CVA phase, a risk for falls related to paralysis is present. Which intervention best protects the patient from injury?
a.
Keep the bed in a high position for ease of nursing care.
b.
Keep the side rails up, according to agency policy.
c.
Assess vision deficit related to ptosis.
d.
Monitor the condition every 2 hours.
 

 102. 

Pneumonia is the most frequent cause of death after a stroke. Which intervention would be contraindicated in the acute care of a patient with a hemorrhagic CVA?
a.
Thicken liquids to ease swallowing and prevent aspiration.
b.
Change position every 30 to 60 minutes.
c.
Maintain adequate fluid intake, orally or IV.
d.
Encourage forceful coughing to stimulate deep breathing.
 

 103. 

Which assessment indicates a fluid volume excess in a patient in the acute phase of a CVA?
a.
Decreased BP
b.
Weak pulse
c.
Adventitious breath sounds
d.
High urine-specific gravity
 

 104. 

Which intervention should the nurse include in a patient’s plan of care to help preserve joint mobility in the acute phase of a CVA?
a.
Pull the limbs on the affected side into a functional position.
b.
Perform aggressive full range-of-motion exercises for all extremities.
c.
Support affected points in good functional alignment.
d.
Exercise the limbs every 8 hours.
 

 105. 

A patient in the acute phase of an embolic CVA has an order for 400 units of heparin per hour IV. The heparin is in a solution of 5000 units/100 mL normal saline (NS). The nurse should set the electronic IV monitor at how many milliliters per hour?
a.
6
b.
8
c.
10
d.
16
 

 106. 

Which assessment indicates that a patient with a CVA is in transition to the rehabilitation phase?
a.
BP has been within normal limits for 24 hours.
b.
Patient makes positive statements about his condition.
c.
No further neurologic deficits are observed.
d.
Successful attempts are made at independent function.
 

 107. 

A patient with homonymous hemianopsia is in the rehabilitation phase of a CVA. When arranging this patient’s environment where should the nurse assure persons approaching and important items are visible and available?
a.
Unaffected side
b.
Affected side
c.
Direct front
d.
Either side
 

 108. 

Which outcome criterion is the most appropriate for a patient with “Imbalanced nutrition, related to dysphagia, with the goal of adequate nutrition”?
a.
Offers a variety of food groups
b.
Eats half of all meals offered
c.
Maintains body weight of 150 to 155 lb
d.
Eats all meals independently
 

 109. 

Which is the most effective intervention for best support of regular bowel elimination and the prevention of constipation?
a.
Limit fluid intake from 32 to 50 oz daily to compact the stool.
b.
Administer small soapsuds enema every other day to cleanse the bowel.
c.
Give stool softeners daily, establishing a consistent time to attempt elimination.
d.
Administer a strong laxative on a daily basis to encourage evacuation.
 

 110. 

A patient in the rehabilitation phase after a CVA accidentally knocks the adapted plate from the table and bursts into tears after failing to feed himself. What is the best response by the nurse?
a.
“Don’t cry. You’ll be mastering eating in no time.”
b.
“I don’t believe crying will help. Let’s try drinking from a special cup.”
c.
“Bless your heart! Let me get a new meal and feed you.”
d.
“Learning new skills is hard. Let’s see what may have caused the trouble.”
 

 111. 

Which instruction is most helpful in teaching the family and patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after a CVA about altered sensation?
a.
Make frequent assessments for signs of pressure or injury.
b.
Use the affected side in supporting the patient in ambulation and transfer to stimulate better sensation.
c.
Apply ice packs to the affected limbs to encourage a return of sensation.
d.
Apply a heating pad to the affected limbs to increase circulation.
 

 112. 

Which posthospital option should the nurse encourage a patient to do when recovering from a CVA to provide the most comprehensive assistance?
a.
Transfer to a rehabilitation center.
b.
Discharge to home with scheduled visits from home health care nurses.
c.
Discharge to home with scheduled visits from a physical therapist.
d.
Discharge to home with scheduled visits from an occupational therapist.
 

 113. 

The wife of a husband who has had a CVA asks why he is being treated with insulin since he has no history of diabetes. What is the best response by the nurse as to why hyperglycemia occurs after a stroke?
a.
Brain swelling
b.
Hypertension
c.
Immobility
d.
Stress
 

Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
 

 114. 

Which foods should the person who suffers from migraine headaches avoid? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Yogurt
 b.
Caffeine
 c.
Beef
 d.
Pears
 e.
Marinated foods
 f.
Milk
 

 115. 

What are the three signs of Cushing response? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Increased pulse rate
 b.
Increased blood pressure
 c.
Widened pulse pressure
 d.
Bradycardia
 e.
Increased systolic blood pressure
 f.
Uncontrolled thermoregulation
 

 116. 

Which of the following techniques are necessary for safely feeding a hemiplegic patient? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Mixing liquids and solid foods together
 b.
Taking the patient’s dentures out to prevent choking
 c.
Checking the affected side of mouth for food accumulation
 d.
Offering small bites of food
 e.
Elevating the patient to no more than 30 degrees
 f.
Adding a thickening agent to liquids
 

 117. 

What is the reticular activating system (RAS) essential to? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Concentration
 b.
Wakefulness
 c.
Speech
 d.
Attention
 e.
Memory
 f.
Introspection
 

 118. 

What are the effects of normal aging on the nervous system? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Small vessel occlusion
 b.
Loss of neurons
 c.
Calcification of cerebrum
 d.
Reduction of cerebral blood flow
 e.
Lipofuscin
 f.
Decrease in oxygen use
 

 119. 

Which neurotransmitters support smooth neural transmission? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Acetylcholine
 b.
CSF
 c.
Dopamine
 d.
Dendrite
 e.
Epinephrine
 

 120. 

A nurse caring for an immobilized patient with a brain tumor stimulates the patient several times a day with range-of-motion exercises and changes his position every 2 hours to try to prevent a disuse syndrome. What signs and symptoms does disuse syndrome include? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Pooling of pulmonary secretions
 b.
Paralysis
 c.
Muscle tremor
 d.
Pressure ulcers
 e.
Altered visual perceptions
 

 121. 

Which are normal brain alterations associated with age? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Decrease in brain weight
 b.
Pigmentation of brain with lipofuscin
 c.
Present of amyloid
 d.
Tiny clot formation
 e.
Tangled nerve fibers
 

 122. 

Which transitory symptoms might occur when a patient is diagnosed with a TIA? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Incontinence
 b.
Dysphagia
 c.
Ptosis
 d.
Tinnitus
 e.
Dysarthria
 

 123. 

What purposes exist for a stent in the carotid artery of a person with a TIA? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Capture circulating clots.
 b.
Help with subsequent angioplasties.
 c.
Keep the artery open.
 d.
Prevent hemorrhage.
 e.
Measure the pressure in the artery.
 

 124. 

What signs and symptoms characterize expressive aphasia? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Speech that sounds normal but makes no sense
 b.
Total inability to communicate
 c.
Difficulty understanding the written and spoken word
 d.
Stuttering and spitting
 e.
Difficulty initiating speech
 

 125. 

How does a lacunar stroke differ from an ischemic CVA? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Causes a great deal of pain
 b.
Alters the personality
 c.
Affects small arteries
 d.
Nearly always results in blindness
 e.
Produces a small amount of neurologic damage
 

 126. 

Which patients with CVAs are considered candidates for treatment with tPA? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
A 62-year-old construction worker who had a subdural hematoma 6 months earlier
 b.
A 58-year-old executive with a bleeding ulcer
 c.
A 44-year-old individual who had a seizure at the onset of a stroke
 d.
A 40-year-old individual who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and has an INR of 2.5
 e.
A 19-year-old young adult with leukemia with a platelet count of 200,000
 

 127. 

Which home modifications will support rehabilitation for a patient who had a stroke? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Raised commode seat
 b.
Provision of a seat in the shower
 c.
Availability of soft, low chairs
 d.
Bathtub hand rails
 e.
Bright-colored scatter rugs
 

 128. 

What causes the 3% of strokes known to occur in persons younger than 45 years of age? (Select all that apply.)
 a.
Drug abuse
 b.
Alcohol abuse
 c.
Birth control pills
 d.
Sickle cell anemia
 e.
Hemophilia
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 

 129. 

A nurse checks the oxygen in the circulating volume for adequate concentration to support the brain’s need of _____% of the oxygen supply of the body.
 

 

 130. 

_________________ is/are responsible for the transmission of impulses between synapses.
 

 

 131. 

A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space.
 

 

 132. 

The nurse explains that the triad of signs of Parkinson disease is: _______, _______ and _______
 

 

 133. 

Involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes, with oscillations that may be horizontal, vertical, or mixed movements, is called ___________________
 

 

 134. 

The waxy substance that covers the neuron fibers and increases the rate of transmission of impulses is the ________.
 

 

Other
 

 135. 

The nurse assessing the level of consciousness in a patient will perform the following: (Arrange in order from the simplest to the most complex. Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.)
A.   Apply pressure to the nail bed.
B.   Shake the patient.
C.   Touch the patient.
D.   Call the patient’s name.
E.   Approach the patient.
 

 136. 

The nurse conducting a Romberg test will ask the patient to do what? (Arrange in the correct sequence. Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.)
A.   Touch his or her nose with the index finger with the eyes open.
B.   Stand with eyes closed.
C.   Touch his or her nose with the index finger with the eyes closed.
D.   Touch his or her fingertip to nurse’s fingertip.
E.   Pat the knees with the palms and then the back of the hands rapidly.
 

 137. 

The nurse explains that the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system work to maintain homeostasis. Place in order the autonomic events. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)

a. Parasympathetic nervous system dominates
b. Extremely stressful or frightening event
c. Blood pressure, heart rate, and adrenaline output decrease
d. Sympathetic nervous system dominates
e. Heart rate and blood pressure rise, secretion of adrenaline
 



 
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