Name: 
 

Caring for Patients with Sensory Disorders



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A 60-year-old patient who has had an enucleation asks when he can get his prosthesis fitted. In approximately how many weeks should this patient expect to be fitted?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
8
d.
12
 

 2. 

A patient who has been taking opioid medication for postoperative pain exhibits pinpoint pupils. Which anatomic portion of the eye has been affected by the medication?
a.
Sclera
b.
Retina
c.
Choroid
d.
Bulbar conjunctiva
 

 3. 

Which portion of the eye makes it possible for a person to see in a darkened environment?
a.
Macula
b.
Rods
c.
Cones
d.
Optic nerve
 

 4. 

When being interviewed, a 50-year-old patient says that he cannot see the newspaper as well as he used to. What is the reason this patient vision has changed from near to far?
a.
The ciliary muscle changes the pupil size.
b.
The lens of the eye changes shape as the ciliary muscle contracts and relaxes.
c.
Nearsightedness has set in.
d.
Clouding of the vitreous humor has occurred.
 

 5. 

During the initial assessment of a very thin patient at the eye clinic, a nurse notes that the patient has very prominent eyes. What medical diagnosis might the nurse find in this patient’s history?
a.
Diabetes
b.
Glomerulonephritis
c.
Graves disease
d.
Hypertension
 

 6. 

When asked about his vision, a patient says that the last time he had it tested, his vision was recorded as 20/50. What does this mean?
a.
He can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 50 feet.
b.
He can read at 50 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
c.
He needs to be 50 feet from objects to see them.
d.
He can see objects the best between 20 and 50 feet.
 

 7. 

Which intraocular pressure reading obtained by tonometry indicates a patient being evaluated for a visual impairment does not have glaucoma?
a.
18 mm Hg
b.
28 mm Hg
c.
45 mm Hg
d.
52 mm Hg
 

 8. 

What does a pneumatonometric study of the eye require?
a.
Regional anesthesia
b.
A pneumotonometer to be placed into the eye
c.
A puff of air directed at the surface of the eye
d.
An applanation performed with a slit-lamp microscope
 

 9. 

What is an appropriate nursing action to implement when performing eye irrigation?
a.
Ask the patient to tip up her head and run the irrigation fluid over her open eye.
b.
Direct the irrigating fluid from the inner canthus to the outer canthus.
c.
Not allow the patient to blink.
d.
Place the irrigating syringe directly onto the corner of the eye and allow the fluid to move across the eye.
 

 10. 

What information should a nurse include when providing information to a patient using topical eye medications?
a.
Look upward and drop the medication into the inner canthus.
b.
Pull the lower eyelid down and drop the medication into the conjunctival sac.
c.
Hold both eyelids open and drop the medication onto the sclera.
d.
Tilt the head to the side and drop the medication into the outer canthus.
 

 11. 

What does electroretinography measure?
a.
A fluorescein dye is injected intravenously (IV) into a vein in the arm, and the retina is observed as the dye circulates.
b.
Electrodes are placed on the scalp, each eye is stimulated, and retinal activity is assessed.
c.
A small plunger is used to apply pressure on the sclera while the retinal vessels are evaluated.
d.
A contact lens electrode is placed on the eye and exposed to flashes of light to evaluate the retinal response.
 

 12. 

What information should a nurse relay to a patient when providing education about protecting vision?
a.
After 40 years of age, eye examinations should be performed every 2 years.
b.
Crusted eyelids on awakening are caused by decreased tear production.
c.
Floaters are a sign of eye infection.
d.
Blurred vision without pain is temporary eye strain.
 

 13. 

How should a nurse assist a visually impaired patient to ambulate?
a.
Hold the visually impaired person by his or her nondominant arm and walk side by side.
b.
Hold the nondominant hand, wrap the arm around his or her waist, and walk side by side.
c.
Allow the visually impaired person to hold the helper’s arm, with the helper slightly ahead.
d.
Allow the visually impaired person to hold the shoulder of the helper and walk slightly behind the helper.
 

 14. 

A newly diagnosed patient with macular degeneration flings her book at the television set and furiously says, “I can’t read this blasted book, and I can’t see what is on the stupid TV!” How should the nurse define this behavior?
a.
Anger stage of grieving
b.
Poor impulse control
c.
Ineffective management of a therapeutic regimen
d.
Psychotic reaction to loss
 

 15. 

What is the correct term to use for a patient with a vision disorder?
a.
Blind
b.
Handicapped
c.
Partially blind
d.
Visually impaired
 

 16. 

Which nursing diagnosis is not appropriate for a visually impaired patient?
a.
Impaired sensory perception
b.
Risk for delayed development
c.
Self-care deficit
d.
Ineffective coping
 

 17. 

Which implementation is appropriate in the care plan for a visually impaired person?
a.
Leaving the bed in the highest position
b.
Keeping the door closed
c.
Announcing your presence when you enter and leave the room
d.
Leaving the radio on all the time to help the patient know the time of day
 

 18. 

A patient with glaucoma is taking a beta-adrenergic blocking agent, timolol (Timoptic). For which potential side effect should the nurse assess the patient?
a.
Wheezing
b.
Hypertension
c.
Sudden eye pain
d.
Blurred vision
 

 19. 

A 52-year-old patient reports that he must hold his paper farther and farther away from his face to read it. What is the nurse’s most informative response?
a.
“You are describing myopia. Glasses will help you read.”
b.
“You may have astigmatism, but your eyes will finally adjust.”
c.
“You have presbyopia. Nonprescription reading glasses will help you.”
d.
“An eye infection may be the problem. Check with your physician for medication.”
 

 20. 

A nurse explains that laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (Lasik) and photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) are methods to correct refractive errors surgically. What do these procedures reshape?
a.
Cornea
b.
Lens
c.
Iris
d.
Pupil
 

 21. 

A patient reports to a home health care nurse of having cloudy vision and seeing spots and halos around lights. What should the nurse suspect based on these patient symptoms?
a.
Cataracts
b.
Glaucoma
c.
Detached retina
d.
Macular degeneration
 

 22. 

How does closed-angle glaucoma differ from open-angle glaucoma?
a.
The onset is acute.
b.
Trabeculectomy is the initial treatment.
c.
Treatment can be conservative.
d.
Intraocular pressure drops suddenly.
 

 23. 

What is the cause of glaucoma?
a.
Cloudiness in the lens
b.
Increase in intraocular pressure
c.
Failed eye surgery
d.
Retinal tears
 

 24. 

A patient in the emergency department complains of severe pain in his eye and is seeing halos around lights and feeling nauseous. Which diagnosis should the nurse suspect?
a.
Open-angle glaucoma
b.
Angle-closure glaucoma
c.
Cataracts
d.
Retinal detachment
 

 25. 

Which surgical implementation is most effective with retinal detachment?
a.
Removing the lens
b.
Macular bonding
c.
Lasik surgery
d.
Scleral buckling
 

 26. 

A nurse reads in a patient’s history that the patient has experienced otalgia. How should the nurse interpret this term?
a.
Difficulty hearing
b.
Buildup of cerumen
c.
Ear pain
d.
Ringing in the ears
 

 27. 

A nurse is assisting with a caloric test and notes that the specific patient response that indicates a hearing disorder is a problem in the labyrinth. Which response did the nurse witness?
a.
Blinking
b.
Grimacing
c.
Headache
d.
Nystagmus
 

 28. 

A 75-year-old patient has normal age-related changes in his ear. What change should not be considered a normal change in the aging patient?
a.
Dry and wrinkled skin on the auricle
b.
Otitis externa
c.
Dry cerumen
d.
Hair in the ear canal
 

 29. 

When making an initial assessment on a patient with a hearing deficit, the patient reports that he often feels off balance and is dizzy when he stands up. Which diagnosis might explain these symptoms?
a.
Sinus infection
b.
Rubella
c.
Otalgia
d.
Presbycusis
 

 30. 

A 94-year-old patient is receiving gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) in a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion. The nurse adds to the nursing care plan the diagnosis “Risk for injury.” What nursing action should be implemented?
a.
Pull side rails in place.
b.
Assist with ambulation.
c.
Measure intake and output.
d.
Provide for a possible seizure.
 

 31. 

A 75-year-old patient reports to a nurse that although she has cleaned her ears with cotton-tipped applicators for weeks, she still cannot hear her television unless the volume is loud, and she misses a great deal of conversations. What should the nurse anticipate when examining her ears?
a.
Otitis externa
b.
Purulent drainage
c.
Dry cerumen across the canal
d.
Pearly tympanic membrane
 

 32. 

A patient reports that her hearing loss has become more severe over the past 3 months. The clinic nurse makes arrangements for an evaluation for a hearing aid. What health care provider should provide this service?
a.
Otologist
b.
Otolaryngologist
c.
Audiometrist
d.
Audiologist
 

 33. 

When a patient has a suspected vestibular disorder, the physician orders an electronystagmography test. Which instruction should the nurse include when educating the patient about this test?
a.
Use tea or coffee on the morning of test.
b.
Electrodes will be placed on the scalp.
c.
Air will be blown into the external ear.
d.
The patient should have nothing to eat or drink (NPO) 3 hours before the test.
 

 34. 

A nurse assessing the results of a Rinne test sees the notation of BC > AC. How should the nurse translate this result?
a.
Conductive hearing loss
b.
Sensorineural hearing loss
c.
Normal hearing
d.
Cochlear defect
 

 35. 

A patient undergoing a Weber test says that the sound is louder in her left ear. What should this result indicate?
a.
Normal hearing
b.
Nerve damage from listening to loud music
c.
Blocked ear canal in the right ear
d.
Conductive hearing loss in the left ear
 

 36. 

Which instruction should a nurse include when providing patient teaching information for a patient who will be self-administering ear drops for an ear infection?
a.
Tip the affected ear up and keep it in that position for several minutes after instilling the medication.
b.
Keep the medication in the refrigerator to preserve it. Instill the medication with the affected ear tilted upward.
c.
Touch the dropper to the opening of the ear canal to ensure that the drops are correctly instilled.
d.
Warm the ear drops and then tilt the head downward.
 

 37. 

What nursing action should be implemented when irrigating a patient’s ear?
a.
Straighten the ear canal and irrigate with a large-tipped bulb syringe.
b.
Direct the solution to the middle of the canal to avoid damaging the ear.
c.
Use a body temperature solution and have the patient hold a basin under the ear while directing the solution toward the top of the canal.
d.
Repeat the irrigation with hotter water.
 

 38. 

A nursing report on a newly admitted patient who is profoundly deaf says that the patient is confused and difficult to assess because she does not appropriately respond to questions or sometimes fails to respond at all. What should be the first action of the oncoming nurse?
a.
Consider asking the physician to assess the patient for dementia.
b.
Assess the patient to determine whether her hearing aids are in.
c.
Report to the physician that the patient is exhibiting signs of the sundown syndrome.
d.
Assess the patient’s medications to check for an overdose.
 

 39. 

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient having ear surgery?
a.
Disturbed body image
b.
Risk for injury
c.
Acute confusion
d.
Ineffective protection
 

 40. 

What significant instruction should a nurse include to a patient being discharged after ear surgery?
a.
Use stool softeners with caution.
b.
Assume your usual activities.
c.
Avoid blowing your nose.
d.
Shampoo your hair with baby shampoo.
 

 41. 

A patient with diabetes says that he needs a hearing aid because he cannot hear well, and everything sounds garbled and distant. What type of hearing loss should the nurse suspect?
a.
Mixed hearing loss
b.
Conductive hearing loss
c.
Central hearing loss
d.
Sensorineural hearing loss
 

 42. 

Which nursing diagnosis should take priority in a nursing care plan for a patient with Ménière disease?
a.
Social isolation, related to anxiety
b.
Risk for injury, related to falls
c.
Risk for deficient fluid intake, related to weakness
d.
Nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to fatigue
 

 43. 

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate when considering the impact of a hearing deficit when planning care for a child who has been diagnosed with a hearing impairment?
a.
Risk for injury, related to hearing impairment
b.
Risk for social isolation, related to hearing impairment
c.
Knowledge deficit, related to hearing impairment
d.
Anxiety, related to hearing impairment
 

 44. 

What information should a nurse stress when teaching a patient with Ménière disease about managing the disorder?
a.
Limiting fluid intake
b.
Avoiding the use of alcohol and tobacco
c.
Using antiemetic medications sparingly
d.
Staying active during the day
 

 45. 

An 85-year-old patient has had age-related changes in the cochlea. What is the most appropriate nursing action for the nurse to implement?
a.
Speak slowly.
b.
Provide assistance with ambulation.
c.
Speak in a lower tone.
d.
Communicate with the patient in writing.
 

 46. 

A patient comes to the primary care clinic complaining of a head cold and ear pain with drainage. What should the nurse suspect this patient is experiencing?
a.
Otitis externa
b.
Hearing loss
c.
Acute otitis media
d.
Mastoiditis
 

 47. 

A young woman being admitted to the clinic service states that all the members of her family have been hard of hearing. She says her hearing loss became more pronounced when she was pregnant. What term explains this type of hearing loss?
a.
Otosclerosis
b.
Ototoxicity
c.
Otalgia
d.
Otitis media
 

 48. 

What should a nurse include when educating a patient with Ménière disease?
a.
“When you feel dizzy, just stay in bed and take your medications.”
b.
“Decrease your sodium intake and take your diuretic medication between attacks.”
c.
“Vestibular rehabilitation might help, and you can still drink your morning coffee.”
d.
“Your vertigo will get better if you take your medications. You won’t need any relaxation techniques.”
 

 49. 

A 75-year-old patient reports having difficulty hearing in crowds but can hear just fine at home with his wife. What hearing disorder should the nurse suspect?
a.
Otitis media
b.
Presbycusis
c.
Ototoxicity
d.
Central deafness
 

 50. 

During an intake physical examination, a patient reports that he has been taking 10 aspirin tablets a day for his arthritis. What question should the nurse ask based on this information?
a.
“Can you hear high-pitched sounds?”
b.
“Have you noticed deafness in just one ear?”
c.
“Do you have ringing in your ears?”
d.
“Do you experience dizziness when you stand?”
 

 51. 

The nurse is aware that the patient has 20/40 vision. This means that the patient can see at 20 feet what the normal eye can see at _______ feet.
a.
100
b.
200
c.
300
d.
400
 

 52. 

The patient tells the nurse that he is legally blind. How would this information impact the nurse’s plan of care for this patient?
a.
The patient would be considered totally blind.
b.
This patient probably has some light perception, but no usable vision.
c.
This patient has some usable vision, which enables function at an acceptable level.
d.
The nurse would need to determine how this patient’s visual impairment affects normal functioning.
 

 53. 

One of the housekeepers splashes a chemical in the eyes. What should be the first priority?
a.
Transport to a physician immediately
b.
Cover the eyes with a sterile gauze
c.
Irrigate with H2O for 5 minutes
d.
Irrigate with normal saline solution for 20 minutes
 

 54. 

What does a tympanoplasty correct?
a.
Conductive hearing loss
b.
Sensorineural hearing loss
c.
Congenital hearing loss
d.
Functional hearing loss
 

 55. 

The 62-year-old home health patient who is recovering from eye surgery complains of a feeling of “grittiness” in the eye and is having blurred vision. The eyes are reddened and have stringy mucus. What do these complaints indicate?
a.
Sjögren syndrome
b.
Early cataracts
c.
Macular degeneration
d.
Retinal detachment
 

 56. 

Four hours after a stapedectomy the patient complains that hearing has not improved at all. What knowledge would the nurse use to shape a response?
a.
A large percentage of stapedectomies are not successful
b.
It will take at least 10 days for the graft to heal
c.
Hearing will not return until edema subsides
d.
Hearing will improve after irrigation of the ear
 

 57. 

What is a common mistake that hinders communication when communicating with the hearing impaired?
a.
Overaccentuating words
b.
Facing the patient when speaking
c.
Speaking in conversational tones
d.
Speaking into the ear with the hearing aid
 

 58. 

What is the process when the lens of the eye changes its curvature to focus on the retina?
a.
Accommodation
b.
Constriction
c.
Convergence
d.
Refraction
 

 59. 

When the newly blind male home health patient asks the nurse how he might get assistance, who might the nurse suggest he contact?
a.
American Red Cross
b.
American Foundation for the Blind for a list of agencies
c.
Local hospital social worker
d.
The public health department
 

 60. 

The nurse clarifies that the difference between a photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) and a laser in-situ keratomileusis (LASIK) is that a LASIK:
a.
reshapes the central cornea.
b.
makes partial-thickness radial incisions in the cornea.
c.
removes some internal layers of the cornea.
d.
implants intracorneal rings.
 

 61. 

What does the cataract treatment of phacoemulsification involve?
a.
“Drying” the cataract with hypertonic saline
b.
Removing the lens through the anterior capsule
c.
The insertion of a new lens
d.
Breaking the cataract with ultrasound
 

 62. 

Which complaint made by a 64-year-old patient during a health interview would alert the nurse to the possibility of cataracts?
a.
Pain in the eyes
b.
Difficulty driving at night
c.
Loss of peripheral vision
d.
Dry eyes
 

 63. 

What should a patient who has had a cataract repair avoid?
a.
The use of eye patches
b.
The use of sunglasses
c.
The lifting of heavy objects
d.
Reading for long periods of time
 

 64. 

What does diabetes retinopathy result from?
a.
Capillaries in retina hemorrhage
b.
Long-term overdosing of insulin
c.
Retinal detachment
d.
Aging
 

 65. 

When the patient in the emergency room complains of seeing flashing lights and a curtain down over his right eye, the nurse recognizes this as a symptom of which condition?
a.
Detached retina
b.
Macular degeneration
c.
Early sign of cataract
d.
Diabetic retinopathy
 

 66. 

The nurse will assess for _____________ when the older adult home health patient complains that the entire right side of his head hurts and he cannot chew without pain.
a.
mumps
b.
external otitis
c.
otitis media
d.
labyrinthitis
 

 67. 

The nurse takes into consideration that the Weber test indicated a conductive hearing loss in a patient because the patient reported hearing the tone:
a.
equally in both ears.
b.
as a shrill noise.
c.
louder in his affected ear.
d.
very faintly.
 

 68. 

What should the nurse remind the hearing aid wearer to do when the nurse hears a whistling hearing aid?
a.
Reinsert the ear mold
b.
Change the battery
c.
Recharge the hearing aid
d.
Wash the ear mold with warm water
 

 69. 

What should the nurse advise the 20-year-old to do who has been put on cefaclor (Ceclor) for a resistant otitis media?
a.
Store suspension at room temperature
b.
Discontinue drug when symptoms abate
c.
Avoid alcoholic beverages
d.
Take with meals only
 

 70. 

How should the nurse advise a patient who has severe vertigo from labyrinthitis?
a.
Lean against a wall and not head forward until vertigo lessens.
b.
Bend at the waist and take several deep breaths.
c.
Drink an iced drink slowly.
d.
Lie immobile and hold the head in one position until the vertigo lessens.
 

 71. 

What do miotic eyedrops do for a patient with glaucoma?
a.
Dilate the pupil and sharpen vision
b.
Lubricate and moisten the dry eye
c.
Irrigate the surface of the eye
d.
Constrict the pupil and open the canal of Schlemm
 

 72. 

What should the nurse include in the plan of care following a tympanoplasty?
a.
Elevating head of bed with operative side facing upward
b.
Enforcing bed rest for 72 hours
c.
Frequent turning, coughing, and deep breathing
d.
Continuous irrigation of the ear canal with antibiotic solutions
 

 73. 

When the patient stares at the black dot on an Amsler grid, what should the nurse ask him to report?
a.
Any color visible on the grid
b.
Fading of the edges of the grid
c.
Any distortion of the grid
d.
Movement of the black dot
 

 74. 

A patient who had an enucleation of the right eye has been admitted PACU. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a.
Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 3 hours
b.
Apply a pressure dressing over the right eye socket
c.
Document dressing assessment every 2 hours
d.
Turn on the affected side
 

 75. 

What must a patient do following a left vitrectomy?
a.
Remain flat in bed for 48 hours
b.
Position self in a face-down position for 4 to 5 days
c.
Assume a side-lying position with the left side down for 3 days
d.
Keep head upright and cushioned with pillows for 24 hours
 

 76. 

How would the nurse explain the purpose of photocoagulation to a diabetic patient with diabetic retinopathy?
a.
The procedure will destroy the retina, which is not getting enough blood supply.
b.
The procedure will reduce edema in the macula of the eye.
c.
The procedure will vaporize fatty deposits that appear in the retina.
d.
The procedure will destroy new blood vessels, seal leaking vessels, and help prevent retinal edema.
 

 77. 

What is the first indication of macular degeneration?
a.
The loss of peripheral vision
b.
The loss of central vision
c.
The loss of color discrimination
d.
Eye fatigue
 

 78. 

Which is a sign of acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG)?
a.
Large fixed pupil
b.
Nystagmus
c.
Bluish color in sclera
d.
Drooping eyelid
 

 79. 

Why is otitis media found more frequently in children 6 to 36 months?
a.
Eustachian tubes in children are shorter and straighter.
b.
Infection descends via the eustachian tube to the throat.
c.
Children’s eustachian tubes are more vertical and longer.
d.
Otitis media is seen equally in both children and adults.
 

 80. 

Why would the nurse encourage a group of teenagers to protect their eyes with dark sunglasses while using a UV lamp?
a.
The lamp can cause cataracts.
b.
The lamp can cause presbycusis.
c.
The lamp can cause keratitis.
d.
The lamp can cause ectropion.
 

 81. 

The nurse counsels the 16-year-old boy that playing his music at high volume can result in impairment in hearing related to:
a.
damaged tympanic membrane.
b.
protective buildup of cerumen.
c.
damage of the fine hair cells in the organ of Corti.
d.
rupture of the oval window.
 



 
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